UGC NET STUDY MATERIALS

UGC NET General Paper I Solved - June 2010

1.       Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity             (B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive     (D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: A
Explanation: Question here focuses on the personal quality of the teacher.
2.       The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children                       (B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself         (D) The community
Answer: C
Explanation: Teacher’s adjustment is his/her own responsibility nobody else is responsible for it.
3.       As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7             (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10          (D) 1 + 5
Answer: A
Explanation: One Principal + 7 faculty members.
4.       Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets    (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue                   (D) Worry
Answer: B
5.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: A
Explanation: Curriculum refers to the sum of all the activities in an out of the school, syllabus is only a small part of it.

6.       A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian        (B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating                         (D) Passive and active
Answer: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.

The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.

How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.

The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.

Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7.       The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process                (B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions          (D) professional opinion
Answer: A
8.       According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Answer: C
9.       Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
Answer: A
10.    The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive                   (B) Negative
(C) Reflective               (D) Absolute
Answer: C
11.    In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe               (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body   (D) A Planet
Answer: B
12.    Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Answer: A
13.       Action research means:
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Answer: C
Explanation: Example – Late reporting of some students in the class.
14.       Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
15.       A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability                (B) Useability
(C) Objectivity               (D) All of the above
Answer: D
16.       Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Answer: C
17.       If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research                 (B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research             (D) None of the above
Answer: B
18.       Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed             (B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed           (D) Zero skewed
Answer: D
19.       In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is
(A) audience attitude              (B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education         (D) audience income
Answer: A
20.       Post-modernism is associated with
(A) newspapers           (B) magazines
(C) radio                                    (D) television
Answer: B
21.       Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal        (B) inter-personal
(C) organizational       (D) relational
Answer: B
22.       In communication, the language is
(A) the non-verbal code         (B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code             (D) the iconic code
Answer: B
23.       Identify the correct sequence of the following:
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Answer:
24.       Assertion (A) : Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: D
25.       When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0       (B) 1/2
(C) 1       (D) 2
Answer: C
26.       On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday    (B) Friday
(C) Saturday     (D) Sunday
Answer: B
27.       If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water           (B) Tree
(C) World           (D) Earth
Answer: D
28.       E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E ?
(A) Brother                    (B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law         (D) Brother-in-law
Answer: D
29.       If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded ?
(A) CADNIHWCE        (B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN         (D) ECNARDNIH
Answer: B
30.    Find the next number in the following series:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63                 (B) 65
(C) 67                 (D) 69
Answer: B
31.       Which of the following is an example of circular argument ?
(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.
Answer: B
32.       Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(A) he is religious        (B) he is educated
(C) he is rich                 (D) he is rational
Answer: B
33.       Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions :
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: D
34.       Certainty is
(A) an objective fact    (B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical                     (D) ontological
Answer: A
Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists
and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.
35.       The region which represents non-Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f        (B) d
(C) a       (D) c
Answer: A

36.       The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
(A) b       (B) c
(C) a       (D) d
Answer: C
37.       The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below:
Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot ?
(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.
Answer: D
In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in per tonnes. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.
38.       Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period?
(A) Saw timber             (B) Plywood
(C) Log                          (D) None of the above
Answer: A
39.       What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log?
(A) 6       (B) 12
(C) 18     (D) 20
Answer: D
40.    In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased?
(A) 2000                        (B) 2002
(C) 2003                        (D) 2006
Answer: C
41.       Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India?
(A) National Sample Surveys                        (B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census                                           (D) Vital Statistics
Answer: C
42.       In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%          (B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%          (D) ~ 47%
Answer: B
43.       Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2       (B) 8
(C) 10     (D) 16
Answer: A
44.       Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?
(A) Microsoft Word       (B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access   (D) Microsoft Windows
Answer: D
45.       Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23 ?
(A) 01011          (B) 10111
(C) 10011          (D) None of the above
Answer: B

46.       Which one of the following is different from other members?
(A) Google        (B) Windows
(C) Linux           (D) Mac
Answer: A
47.       Where does a computer add and compare its data?
(A) CPU             (B) Memory
(C) Hard disk    (D) Floppy disk
Answer: A
48.       Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address       (B) street address
(C) IP address              (D) None of the above
Answer: C
49.       The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of
(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
50.    Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives?
(A) Hydrological           (B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological              (D) Geo-chemical
Answer: A
51.       Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands                        (B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories      (D) Combustion of plastics
Answer: D
52.       The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme
Answer: A
53.       The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Answer: A
54.       Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
Reason (R) : The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: B
55.       Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture             2. forest fires
3. biodiversity               4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3        (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D

56.       The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.
Answer: B
57.       Which option is not correct ?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86thConstitutional Amendment.
Answer: D
58.       Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008.
Answer: A
59.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                                   List – II
(Articles of the Constitution)           (Institutions)
(a) Article 280                                       (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324                                       (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323                                       (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315                                       (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
      (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
(A) (i)    (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
(B) (iii)  (ii)    (i)    (iv)
(C) (ii)  (iii)   (iv)   (i)
(D) (ii)  (iv)   (iii)   (i)
Answer: B
60.    Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council.
Answer: B

UGC NET General Paper I Solved - December 2010

1.       Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
(A) Socio-economic Status    (B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude           (D) Professional Attitude
Answer: D
2.       A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be classified as
(A) Descriptive Survey            (B) Experimental Research
(C) Case Study                                    (D) Ethnography
Answer: B
3.       The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
(A) Qualitative Research        (B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study          (D) Probability Sampling
Answer: A
4.       The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
(A) Vocational Interest                        (B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations             (D) Achievement Motivation
Answer: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:

It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and
circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released
many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.

Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.

It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5.       Which one of the following is true of the given passage?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement.
Answer: B
6.       The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical                  (B) Cultural
(C) Technological        (D) Psychological
Answer: D
7.       To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement         (B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement       (D) movement represented by Gandhi
Answer: C
8.       Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality                              (B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes           (D) lead the Indian National Congress
Answer: B
9.       Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses
Answer: A
10.    The author concludes the passage by
(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Answer: C

11.       Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
(A) Networked media  (B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media          (D) Multimedia
Answer: A
12.       The information function of mass communication is described as
(A) diffusion                 (B) publicity
(C) surveillance           (D) diversion
Answer: C
13.       An example of asynchronous medium is
(A) Radio           (B) Television
(C) Film                         (D) Newspaper
Answer: D
14.       In communication, connotative words are
(A) explicit         (B) abstract
(C) simple         (D) cultural
Answer: D
15.       A message beneath a message is labelled as
(A) embedded text       (B) internal text
(C) inter-text                  (D) sub-text
Answer: D
16.       In analog mass communication, stories are
(A) static            (B) dynamic
(C) interactive   (D) exploratory
Answer: A
17.       Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship:
(A) often : rarely                       (B) frequently : occasionally
(C) constantly : frequently     (D) intermittently : casually
Answer: A
18.       Find the wrong number in the sequence :
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27                 (B) 34
(C) 43                 (D) 48
Answer: B
19.       In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30                 (B) 37
(C) 39                 (D) 41
Answer: B
20.    The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :
AF : IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO               (B) NP
(C) OR               (D) TV
Answer: D

21.       If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
(A) 2       (B) 3
(C) 4       (D) 5
Answer: A
22.       In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
(A) 10     (B) 20
(C) 30     (D) 40
Answer: D
23.       Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?
Statements :
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions :
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows.                (B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.    (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: D
24.       If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii)                (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)              (D) (i) only
Answer: B
25.       A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning      (B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning       (D) Transcendental Reasoning
Answer: D
26.       What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks?
(A) 5       (B) 7
(C) 4       (D) 3
Answer: D
27.       Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B ?
(A) Tailor and barber               (B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook                  (D) Tailor and washerman
Answer: C
28.       Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram                 (B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table                   (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Answer: D
29.       Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
(A) MTNL                       (B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India         (D) Infotech India Ltd.
Answer: D
30.    The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
(A) 0 – 7                         (B) 0 – 9 , A – F
(C) 0 – 7, A – F             (D) None of these
Answer: B

31.       The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is used)
(A) 11110001               (B) 11110000
(C) 10001111               (D) None of these
Answer: A
32.       1 GB is equal to
(A) 230 bits         (B) 230 bytes
(C) 220 bits         (D) 220 bytes
Answer: B
33.       The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called
(A) Compiler system                (B) Operation system
(C) Operating system              (D) None of these
Answer: C
34.       S/MIME in Internet technology stands for
(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
Answer: A
35.       Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power            (B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation          (D) Nuclear energy
Answer: D
36.       The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L     (B) 400 mg/L
(C) 300 mg/L     (D) 200 mg/L
Answer: A
37.       ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
(A) Arundhati Roy       (B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt                  (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Answer: D
38.       The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO2 and O3                                 (B) SO2 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN                (D) SO2 and SPM
Answer: C
39.       Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: A
40.    Volcanic eruptions affect
(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
(B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Answer: D

41.       India’s first Defense University is in the State of
(A) Haryana                  (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh        (D) Punjab
Answer: A
42.       Most of the Universities in India
(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Answer: C
43.       Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Election Commission                               (B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission       (D) Planning Commission
Answer: D
44.       Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: B
45.       Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: D
46.       Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: B
47.       If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle represents ‘mortality’, which one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are mortal.’ ?







Answer: C
The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52:
48.       In which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum?
(A) 2006            (B) 2007
(C) 2008            (D) 2010
Answer: C
49.       What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008 ?
(A) 3000            (B) 867
(C) 3015            (D) 2400
Answer: B
50.    What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the year 2010 ?
(A) 2007            (B) 2006
(C) 2009            (D) 2008
Answer: B
51.    What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010 ?
(A) 4 : 3              (B) 3 : 4
(C) 1 : 3              (D) 2 : 3
Answer: B
52.    What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007 ?
(A) 6 : 7              (B) 7 : 6
(C) 2 : 3              (D) 3 : 2
Answer: C

53.       Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because such children
(A) Are gifted                                        (B) Come from rich families
(C) Show artificial behavior               (D) Create indiscipline in the class
Answer: A
54.       The most important quality of a good teacher is
(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
(B) Good communication skills
(C) Concern for students’ welfare
(D) Effective leadership qualities
Answer: A
55.       Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student relationship?
(A) Very informal and intimate          (B) Limited to classroom only
(C) Cordial and respectful                 (D) Indifferent
Answer: C
56.       The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to
(A) supervise the work of their wards
(B) arrange for extra tuition
(C) remain unconcerned about it
(D) interact with teachers frequently
Answer: A
57.       In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
(D) loud discussion among students
Answer: C
58.       If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the examination, the teacher should
(A) try to help him                    (B) ask him not to talk in those terms
(C) refuse politely and firmly (D) ask him rudely to go away
Answer: C
59.       Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process?
(A) Systematic Activity            (B) Objective Observation
(C) Trial and Error                    (D) Problem Solving
Answer: B
60.       Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?
(A) Family size             (B) Intelligence
(C) Height                     (D) Attitude
Answer: B

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