UGC NET STUDY MATERIALS

DATA STRUCTURE USING C

Sikkim Manipal University
Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Structure Using C
Subject code: BC 0038
Total Time: 2 hours
Total Marks: 140
Notes:
1. Question paper is divided into three parts i.e. Part A, Part B, and Part C.
2. Part A consist 40 questions of one mark each
3. Part B consist 20 questions of 2 marks each.
4. Part C consist 15 questions of 4 marks each.
5. All questions are compulsory
Part A (One Mark Question)
1)
int a[]={5,4,3,2,1} What is the value of a[3]?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
1
2)
float a[10]; What is the size of the array?
a.
10
b.
20
c.
30
d.
40
3)
Array is :
a.
Primary data type
b.
Ho mogeneous data type
c.
Pointer data type
d.
Heterogeneous data type
4)
Array index can be started from 1?
a.
Yes
b.
No
5)
To accept 100 different values into the array we require:
a.
Loop
b.
If condition
c.
Function
d.
Structure
6)
Pointer holds
a.
Value o f variable
b.
Address of variable
c.
Value and address of variable
d.
Always null
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7)
A pointer can hold
a.
Two addresses at a time
b.
Single address at a time
c.
Number of addresses at a time
d.
No address
8)
main() {
int a=3,b=2,c,*d,*e;
d=&a; e=&b;
c=*d+*e;
}
Which one of the given answers is correct?
a.
a=4,c=6
b.
a=3, c=8
c.
a=3 , c=6
d.
a=3,c = 5
Assume that variable
x
resides at memor y location 100,
y
at 200 and
ip
at 1000.
9)
int x=1; y=2,*ip;
ip=&x;
y=*ip;
What will be the value of
y
after execution of above code?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
100
d.
1000
10)
Which of the following is the correct way of declaring an array of integer pointers?
a.
int *arr[10];
b.
int arr[10];
c.
*int arr[10];
d.
int *arr;
11)
If an integer occupies 4 bytes and a character occupies 1 byte of memory, each element of the
following structure would occupy how many bytes?
struct name {
int age;
char name[30];
};
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a.
32
b.
34
c.
30
d.
2
12)
A structure brings together a group of
a.
items of the same data type
b.
related data items and variables
c.
integers with user defined names
d.
floating points with user defined names
13)
To identify a member element of a structure we use :
a.
dot (.) operator
b.
plus(+) operator
c.
* operator
d.
& operator
14)
When the structure is accessed through pointer th en we use to access member elements by
a.
Dot (.) operator
b.
* operator
c.
operator
d.
& operator
15)
We can create array of structure:
a.
Yes
b.
No
16)
The data structure has the following components
a.
Algorithm, storage structure and function of implementation
b.
Algorithm, data type and function of implementation
c.
Function, storage structure and program
d.
Algorithm, data structure and program
17)
In linked list, the successive element
a.
Must occupy contiguous locations in memory
b.
Need not occupy contiguous space in memory
c.
Must not occupy contiguous locations in any situation
d.
None of the above
18)
Link pointer variable in linked list contain address of the
a.
Following node in the list
b.
Current node in the list
c.
First node in the list
d.
None of the above
19)
Which of the following liner list structure allow both insertion and deletion at only one end?
a.
Queue
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b.
Stack
c.
Circular queue
d.
d) None of the above
20)
Pick out invalid statement from following : Queues can be used for
a.
The line printer
b.
Access to disk storage
c.
Function call
d.
Main Memory Access
21)
In Stack we insert data from:
a.
Front End
b.
Rear End
c.
Both End
d.
Top End
22)
The Stack overflow occurs when
a.
When stack contains maximum elements
b.
When stack contains minimum elements
c.
When stack contains half of the maximum elements
d.
When stack is empty
23)
Stack maintains the algorithm
a.
LIFO
b.
FIFO
c.
FILO
d.
LILO
24)
The stack is easy to maintain by
a.
Array
b.
Link List
c.
Structure
d.
Union
25)
Application of Stack is :
a.
Function Call
b.
Storage data in memory
c.
Dynamic memory allocation
d.
Structure definition
26)
When PUSH operation is done then
a.
TOP=TOP+1
b.
TOP = TOP-1
c.
TOP=-1
d.
TOP=0
27)
When POP operation is done then
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a.
TOP=TOP+1
b.
TOP = TOP-1
c.
TOP=-1
d.
TOP=0
28)
We can change the insertion position of the Stack
a.
Yes
b.
No
29)
In the Sack STACK_SIZE is :
a.
Fixed
b.
Variable
30)
A stack cannot be used to
a.
evaluate an arithmetic expression in postfix form
b.
implement recursion
c.
convert infix form to postfix from of an expression
d.
allocate resources by operating system
31)
If the in-order pre-order traversal of a binary tree are D,B,F,E,G,H,A,C and A,B,D,E,F,G,H,C
respectively then post order will be:
a.
D,F,G,A,B,C,H,E
b.
F,H,D,G,E,B,C,A
c.
D,F,H,G,E,B,C,A
d.
C,G,H,F,E,D,B,A
32)
Stack is useful for implementing breadth first search
a.
True
b.
False
33)
The Polish Notation is
a.
Post order
b.
Pre order
c.
In order
d.
None of these
34)
Infix to post fix conversion we need :
a.
Stack
b.
Queue
c.
Structure
d.
Union
35)
Requirement of Polish Notation
a.
Because the notation does not have any priority
b.
Because the notation have priority
36)
What algorithm is used in Queue?
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a.
FILO
b.
LILO
c.
FIFO
d.
LIFO
37)
From which end of Queue elements are deleted?
a.
Rear
b.
Front
c.
Middle Position
d.
Any position of the queue
38)
The Queue Size can be
a.
Dynamically changed
b.
Static, cannot he changed
39)
POP from queue needs checking
a.
Queue Full Condition
b.
Queue Empty Condition
c.
Stack Full Condition
d.
Stack Empty Condition
40)
Queue is easy to implement by
a.
Array
b.
Link List
c.
Structure
d.
Union
Part B (Two Mark Question)
41)
Which of the following data structure may give overflow error, even though the current
number of elements in it is less than its size?
a.
Stack
b.
circular queue
c.
simple queue
d.
none of the abov e
42)
The basic problem of space utilization has been removed by
a.
Stack
b.
Circular Queue
c.
Double Ended Queue
d.
Queue Size
43)
What is the difference between Stack & Queue?
a.
Storage Structure
b.
Memory Allocation
c.
Algorithm
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d.
All of the Above
44)
Queue can be represented by
a.
Array
b.
Link List
c.
Tree
d.
Only a) and b) is correct
45)
Queue is
a.
Linear Data Structure
b.
Non Linear Data Structure
46)
Josephus Problem is the application of
a.
Ordinary Queue
b.
Circular Queue
c.
Double Ended Queue
d.
Priority Queue
47)
The priority queue requires FRONT and REAR:
a.
One only
b.
Multiple
c.
None
d.
Two only
48)
The access of Queue elements is
a.
Sequential
b.
Random
c.
Direct
d.
Indexed
49)
Front and Rear can be interchangeable in
a.
Dqueue
b.
Priority Queue
c.
Circular Queue
d.
Ordinary Queue
50)
One Application of Priority Queue is
a.
CPU scheduling
b.
Ready Queue for printing
c.
Data Access from RAM
d.
Reading data through Scanner
51)
Linked List is
a.
Linear Data Structure
b.
Non Linear Data Structure
52)
To create linked list created by
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a.
Structure
b.
Union
c.
Array
d.
Macro
53)
Each node of linked list has two parts
a.
Data & Address
b.
Data & Null
c.
Address & Null
d.
Address & Address
54)
Linked List allocate memory space in
a.
Direct fashion
b.
Contiguous fashion
c.
Random fashion
d.
Indexed fashion
55)
Advantage of Linked List over array
a.
Linked List occupies less memory
b.
Linked List can be stored in disk
c.
Deletion of nodes is easy than array
d.
Linked List is easy to maintain
56)
In Circular Link List
a.
Head node contains the address of tail node
b.
Tail node contains the address of the head
c.
Head node contains the address of the middle node
d.
Tail node contains the address of the middle node
57)
In Doubly Linked List each node contains
a.
No address part
b.
One address part
c.
Two address part
d.
Three address part
58)
We can traverse in either d irection
a.
Singular Linked List
b.
Circular Linked List
c.
Doubly Linked List
d.
Tree Linked List
59)
The application of Linked List
a.
Add two characters
b.
Add two large numbers
c.
Add two Strings
d.
Add two very small numbers
60)
Can we delete the head node from Doubly Linked List
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a.
True
b.
False
Part C (Four Mark Question)
61)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A B-Tree of order
a.
24 contains at least 12 key in each non root node
b.
25 contains at least 12 keys in each node
c.
24 contains at least 23 keys in each non root node.
d.
None of the above.
62)
What is the minimum number of keys contained in each non root node of a B-Tree of order
11?
a.
4
b.
5
c.
3
d.
1
63)
If the degree of a node if 0 then the tree is called
a.
Trinary Tree
b.
Single Edged tree
c.
Single node tree
d.
Single degree tree
64)
Number of all possible binary trees with 2 nodes is
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
65)
Binary Tree Traversal is faster in
a.
Ordinary Binary Tree
b.
Binary Search Tree
c.
Threaded Binary Tree
d.
AVL Tree
66)
In co mplete binary tree the numb er of nodes in level 0 is
a.
0
b.
1
c.
2
d.
3
67)
AVL tree is a special types o f
a.
Binary Tree
b.
Binary Search Tree
c.
Threaded Binary Tree
d.
B-Tree
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68)
In AVL Tree, the Balance Factor is calculated as
a.
Left Height – Left Height
b.
Right Height – Right Height
c.
Left Height – Right Height
d.
Middle Height – Right Height
69)
The minimum balance factor of a node in AVL tree is
a.
-2
b.
-1
c.
0
d.
1
70)
The Polish Notation is
a.
Prefix notation
b.
Postfix notation
c.
Infix notation
d.
All of the above
71)
An adjacency matrix representation of a graph cannot contain information of
a.
Nodes
b.
Edges
c.
direction of edges
d.
parallel edge s
72)
The strongly connected graph
a.
can connect from one node to any other node
b.
can connect from few nodes to other few nodes
c.
cannot connect to other nodes
d.
can connect only one node
73)
If no parallel edges in a 4 vertices graph , what is the maximum degree of a vertex?
a.
4
b.
3
c.
2
d.
1
74)
For Graph Traversal
a.
DFS & BFS
b.
Prefix
c.
Infix
d.
Postfix
75)
Spanning Tree related to
a.
Kruskal’s lgorithm
b.
Piterson’s lgorithm
c.
Newton’s lgorithm
d.
Ratherford’s lgorithm
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DBMS

MBA Third Semester
Model Question Paper -2009
Database Management Systems (DBMS) (2 Credits)
Question Number 1 to 20 -1 mark Question.
Question Number 21 to 31-2 Marks Question.
Question Number 32 to 38 - 4 Marks Question.
Q.N
Statement and Options
o.
1 A __________ is complex set of software programs that
controls the organization, storage & retrieval of data in a
database.
a. Repository
b. DBMS
c. Software
d. Program
2 A major drawback of the static hashing is that address space
is ________.
a. dynamic
b. fixed
c. variable
d .collide
3 Third normal form is based on the concept of
________________
a. functional dependency
b. full functional dependency
c. semi functional dependency
d. transitive dependency
4
In _______________ Data can be accessed by users at other
remote sites through the distributed database m anagement

system software.
a. Transparency
b. Data sharing
c. Easier expansion
d. Data tracing
5 ________________ is known as UNDO/REDO algorithm.
a. Immediate update
b. deferred update
c. the redo logs
d. rolled back
6 These are Design Driven
a. Database Management Systems
b. Management Information Systems
c. Centralized systems
d. File systems
7 Whenever a record is larger than a block, we must use a
_____________ Organization.
a. Spanned
b. unspanned
c. sequential
d. random access.
8 ______________ is one of the major factor
s
in database
Management.
a. Integrity
b. Security
c. Consistency
d. Concurrency
9 Only retrieving of data is called

a. retrieve transaction
b. write transaction
c. read only transaction.
d. read & write transaction
10 If many of the attributes do not take any values, we insert
_____________ values.
a. Data
b. NULL
c. attribute
d. Schema
11 The ________________ differs from the tuple calculas
in the type
of variables used in formulas.
a. Relational calculas
b. Relational algebra
c. Domain calculas
d. Tuple calculas
12 _____________ is a pointer to s disk block
a. second field
b. first field
c. clustering index
d. secondary index
13 For each attribute there is a set of permitted values
called the ___________ of that attribute
a. domain
b. value
c. atomic value
d. schema
14 The ______________ are used to alter the database tables.
a. DML statement
d. DCL statement

c. DDL statement
d. TCL statement
15 ____________ are used for data modification operations
a. A Lock
b. Exclusive locks
c. binary lock
d. Shared locks
16 A transaction is a _________ unit of database processing
that includes one or more database access operations
a. physical
b. diagrammatic
c. logical
d. flow
17 ___________________ is a nonprocedural language.
a. Relational calculas
b. Relational algebra
c. Domain calculas
d. Tuple calculas
18 Each attribute is assocaited with a set of values called
____________ of that attribute.
a. value
b. domain
c. tuple
d. data
19 SQL stands for _______________________
a. Set of Query languages
b. Structured Query Language
c. Sequential Query Language
d. Sophisticated Queuing Line
20 ______ is needed in case the system fails after a transaction

commits
a. LOG
b. Commit
c. REDO
d START
21 The description of the data base means defining the names,
data type, size of a column in a table and database
[Actual data in the table] itself. This is called
a. Entity
b. Attribute
c. Instance
d. Schema
22 In traditional file processing, data definition is a part of the
_____________ while in Modern database management
systems it is part of the __________
a. Hardware & Software
b. Application program & DBMS
c. Application programs & System programs
d. Files & Database
23 The main disadvantage of the index-sequential file organization is
a. The deleted entry may appear in a non-leaf node.
b. Application program & DBMS
c. Performance degrades as the file grows.
d. The deleted entry always appears in a leaf.
24 when one transaction updates a database item and then the transaction fails for som e
reason. This problem is called _____________
a. The lost update problem
b. Dirty read problem
c. Incorrect summary problem
d. Inconsistency problem
25 In order to do the following operations like creating and deleting a table, Insert,

modify and delete rows, search several rows by specifying information and modify
security information, this is used as the command.
a. DDL
b. DML
c. DCL
d. SQL query
26 A relation schema R is in first normal form if
a. no prime attribute is transitively dependent on the primary key.
b. there is a set of attributes 'Z' Le x->, z->y is transitive.
c.every non-prime attribute A in R is fully functionally dependent on the Primary
Key of R.
d. every attribute of R takes only single atomic values.
27 Relations of degree one are ___________ & degree two are _______________
a. Unary & binary
b. primary & secondary
c. single valued attribute & double valued attribute
d. identity & bidirectional
28 Conditions of the form x*y where * is any of the following
a. AND, NOT, OR
b. =, !=, <, >, >=
c. XOR, XNOT, NAND
d. All the above
29
The five domains are sets of values representing, respectively, part numbers, part
names, part weights, part colors, and locations in which parts are stores. This
relation is called ________________
a. 5th degree level
b. cardinality of PART 5
c. PART of degree 5

d. 5 attributes
30 In the fixed length records
d. A field guaranteed to have a unique value in each record
b. all records in a file are of the same record type.
c. records of optional fields
d. records having repeating fields.
31 Independent software vendors develop and market the tools like DB design,
perfromance, monitoring and graphical interacts. They are called
a. tool providers
b. Application programmers
c. tool developers
d. Database designers
32 Lock_item (D):
B: if LOCK(X)=0 ("item is unlocked")
Then LOCK(X)¬1 ("lock the item")
else begin
wait (until lock(X)=0 and
the lock manager wakes up the transaction);
goto B
end;
unlock_item(X):
LOCK(X)¬0; ('unlock the item")
Using above algorithm answer the following questions
A. What happens when LOCK(X) = 0?
a. The transaction is forced to wait.
b. It is set to 1, and the transaction is allowed to access item X
c. Locks the item
d. X cannot be accessed by a database operation that requests the item.

33 Use the above data to solve the following questions
A. What happens when the system comes back up?
a. The operation read (A) is perform ed
b. The operation read is performed
c. Transaction T1 transfers
d. Incomplete transaction
B. After the record appears in the log on the disk. After this operation is
executed , the value of accounts A and B are
a. Rs. 50 & Rs. 950
b. Rs. 950 & Rs. 2050
c. Rs. 950 & Rs. 700
d. Rs. 100 & Rs. 600
34 Match the Following
1. Load a. Reorganize a database file into a
different file organization
2. Backup b. Mechanism for data storage &
retrieval.
3. File reorganization c. Loads data from data file Is not
database.
4. Performance monitoring d. Observe usage by providing statistics
to the DBA.
e. Creates a backup copy of the
database.
a. 1e, 2c, 3d, 4a
b. 1c, 2e, 3a, 4d
c. 1d, 2b, 3c, 4e
d. 1a, 2e, 3c, 4b
35 A. No PK value can be NULL, because PK value is used to identify individual tuple ina

relation This is stated by ______________
a. foreign key
b. referential integrity
c. Entity constraints
d. domain constraints
B. If we denote cardinality of a domain D by | D |, and assume
that all domains are finite, the total number of tuples in
the cartesian product is
a. | dom (A1) | + | dom(A2) | +………… + | dom ( An) |
b. | dom (A1) | * | dom(A2) | * ………… * | dom ( An) |
c. | dom (A1) | * | dom(A2) | * ………… * | dom ( An
-1) |
…………
d. | dom (An) | - | dom(An-1) | -
- | dom ( A1) |
36 Match the following
1. BLOB a. Variable length character
2. BFILE b. Loads host OS file into SQL BUFFER
3. VARCHAR2(size) c. Pointer to binary OS file
4. GER d. Character large object
e. Binary large object
a. 1c, 2e, 3a, 4d
b. 1d, 2c, 3a, 4c
c. 1e, 2c, 3a, 4b
d. 1b, 2d, 3c, 4e
Domain variable D, E, F…..Each domain variable is
37 1.
constrained to range over some specified domain.
2. X * Y, here x and y are domain variables. * is one of the
comparison operators in the set {=,! =, <,>, <=,>=} and
xi and xj are domain variables.
3.
Consider R ( x1, x2….xi) where R is the name of a relation.
This states that a list of values of ,
must be a tuple in the relation R, where xi is the value at the

Attribute value of the tuple.
These are the elements to be used to construct the expressions
of __________________.
a. Relational calculas
b. relational algebra
c. domain relational calculas
d. Well formed Formulas
38 Mapping cardinalities should be one of the following
a. One-to-two or Two-to-Many or Many-to-One or Many-to-Many
b. One-to-One or One-to-Many or (N-1)-to-One or N-to-(N-1)
c. One-to-One or One-to-Many or Many-to-One or Many-to-Many
d. none of the above

COMPUTER NETWORK - II

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: BC0048
Subject Name: Computer Networks
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)
1. The term “Computer Network” is used to mean an interconnected collection of--------------------
----
A) Mini computers
B) Super computers
C) Autonomous computers
D) Micro computers
2. A node, which is more powerful, and can handle local information processing or graphics
processing is called a------------------.
A) Workstation
B) Server
C) Network Operating System
D) Peer system
3. The collection of communication lines and routers is called --------------------




A) LAN
B) WAN
C) MAN
D) Communication subnet
4. Wireless networks are mainly classified into ------------- categories.
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
5. In OSI-ISO architecture -------------------- layer is concerned with transmitting raw bits over the
communication channel .
A) Data link Layer
B) Physical Layer
C) Session Layer
D) All of these
6. ------------------- is a set of rules governing the format and meaning of the packets, or
messages that are exchanged by the peer entities within a layer.
A) Interface
B) Reference model
C ) protocol
D) None of these




7. -------------- is needed in the physical layer , where all the traffic for all connections has to be
sent over at most a few physical circuits.
A) subnet
B) Multiplexing
C) decoding
D) encoding
8. In OSI/IOS model at which layer modulator/demodulators are used ?
A) data link layer
B) network layer
C) session layer
D) physical Layer
9. ------------------- is/ are caused by the random motion of the electrons in a wire and is
unavoidable.
A) Dispersion
B) Thermal noise
C) Delay distortion
D) all of these
10. ---------------- results from interference of different frequencies sharing the same medium.
A) Intermodulation
B) Cross talk
C) Impluse
D) Thermal noise




11. In which mode of transmission, transmitting and receiving clocks are independent of
each other.
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Synchronous
D) Asynchronous
12. UART stands for---------------------
A) user access remote terminal
B) universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
C) uni addressed remote terminal
D) none of these
13. The type of network topology in which all of the nodes of the network are connected to a
common transmission medium which has exactly two endpoints is called ------------------------------
A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Tree
D ) Mesh
14.--------------- combines characteristics of linear bus and star topologies.
A) Ring topology
B) A hybrid topology
C ) A tree topology
D) mesh topology
15. A key characteristic of ----------------------- networks is that resources within the network
are dedicated to a particular call.




A) message switching
B) Packet switching
C) Circuit switching
D) any of these
16. In a packet switching networks a typical upper bound on packet length is -------------.
A) 50 bytes
B) 100 bytes
C) 500 bytes
D) 1000 bytes
17. Which of these is an example for unguided transmission media?
A) coaxial cable
B) optical fibers
C) wireless
D) twisted pairs
18. The key concern in the design of transmission system is -------------- and ---------------
A) data rate ,distance
B) speed, accuracy
C) accuracy, simplicity
D) distance , cost
19. ------------- transmits a signal encoded beam of light by means of total internal reflection




A) co-axial cable
B) twisted pair
C) microwave
D) none of these
20. In a twisted pair cable, twisting reduces---------------.
A) noise
B) electrical interference
C) cross talk
D) all of these
21. Which layer transfers data between adjacent network nodes in a wide area network or
between nodes on the same local area network segment.
A) physical layer
B) Data link layer
C) Network layer
D) Session layer
22. The data link layer is split into -------------- and ----------------- sub layers.
A) MAC , LLC
B )MCC , LAC
C) MCM , LCM
D) CRC , MLC




23. To find the hamming distance between two words we perform --------------- operation
between those words.
A) NAND
B) NOR
C) EX-OR
D) OR
24. Given data is 1111101 , after using even parity the code becomes -------------------
A) 111111 1 1
B) 00000111
C) 10101010
D) 11111010
25. Pure ALOHA has a maximum throughput of -----------
A) 16.4 %
B) 18.4 %
C) 17.4 %
D) 1 %
26. preamble field of 802.3 frame is encoded using ------------------- encoding
A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester
C) Bi polar
D) uni polar




27. In the IEEE standards 802.5 standard is also called ------------------
A) Ethernet
B) Token Bus
C) Wireless local area network
D) Token Ring
28. What is the length of Ethernet address ?
A) 32 bits
B) 64 bits
C) 48 bits
D) 16 bits
29. How many levels of priority is defined in IPV4 protocol?
A) 4
B)2
C )8
D) 6
30. ----------------is a static algorithm in which every incoming packet is sent out on every
outgoing line except the one it arrives on.
A) Flooding
B) Congestion
C) Link state routing
D ) Distance vector




31. The main function of ------------------ layer is routing packets from the source machine to
the destination machine.
A) transport
B) physical
C) application
D) network
32. When hierarchical routing is used , the routers are divided into -------------
A) sectors
B ) regions
C) pages
D) segments
33. Which routing dominates the internet ?
A) Dynamic
B) static
C) synchronous
D) Asynchronous
34. Which of these layer is responsible for flow control ?
A) Network layer
B) Transport Layer
C) session layer
D) Application Layer




35. Which of these function belongs to transport layer ?
A) routing of packets
B) congestion control
C) email
D) none of these
36. TPDU is an acronym for ---------------------
A) Transport protocol data unit
B) trasferent product data unit
C) transitive product data unit
D) transfer protocol digital unit
37. Packet lifetime can be restricted to a known maximum by using this /these method.
A) Restricted subnet design
B) putting a hop counter in each packet
C) time stamping each packet
D) all of these
38. Which of these protocol guarantees reliable and in-order delivery of data from sender to
receiver. ?
A) TCP/IP
B) UDP
C)STP




D)TDP
39. Which of these is a feature of hubs ?
A) Hubs amplify the incoming signal.
B) Hubs understand frames, packets or headers
C) All lines coming into a Hub must operate at a same speed.
D) all of these
40. Hubs are classified as --------------- and --------------- hubs.
A) active, passive
B) synchronous, asynchronous
C) simplex, half duplex
D) one way , multi way




Part B (Two mark questions)
41. --------------- have a single communication channel that is shared by all the users on the
network.
A) Point-to-poit
B) Broadcast networks
C) Protocol
D) PAN
42. The world wide Internet is a well known example of ------------------.
A ) PAN
B) Subnet
C) Intra-Network
D) inter-network
43. Which Layer is Responsible for Congestion Control ?
A) Network Layer
B) Datalink Layer
C) Transport Layer
D) Application layer
44) -------------Modulation, is a technique of conversion between the representation of digital data
in user equipment and the corresponding signals transmitted over a communications channel.




A) Line coding
B) Demodulation
C) Modulation
D) Segmentation
45. Videoconferencing is an example for ------------------- communication
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) serial
46. E-mail is an example of -------------- mode of communication where one party can send a
note to another person and the recipient need not be online to receive the e-mail.
A) asynchronous
B) synchronous
C) full duplex
D) either A) or B)
47. Following are the advantages of tree topology
i)Point-to-point wiring for individual segments.
ii)Supported by several hardware and software venders.
iii) Easy to install and wire




A) i) only
B) i) and ii) only
C) iii) only
D) i) ,ii) and iii)
48. The most well-Known use of -------------------- is internet
A) Packet switching
B) circuit switching
C) message switching
D) multiplexing
49. Transmission medias are classified into two main categories, which are -------------- and ------
--------------.
A) twisted pair, coaxial
B) guided , unguided
C) analog, digital
D) synchronous, Asynchronous
50. Which of the following transmission media suffers more from transmission impairment.
A) coaxial cable
B) Optical fiber
C) twisted pair
D) wave guides




51. The DLL translates the physical layer's raw bit stream into discrete units called ---------------
A) packets
B) messages
C) frames.
D) TPDU
52. The Hamming Distance for the codes generated using either even or odd parity will be-------
-----------
A) 2
B) 4
C)1
D) 0
53. Who defined ALOHA protocol ?
A) Claude shanon
B) Nyquist
C) Abramson
D) Newton




54. What is the pattern of a preamble ?
A) 11110000
B) 11111111
C) 00000000
D) none of these
55. Which of these is/are the properties of routing algorithm ?
A) correctness
B) simplicity
C) stability
D) all of these
56. Where are routing tables placed ?
A) in network interface card
B) in routers memory
C) in server memory
D) in a subnet’s memory
57. Which of these is a minimal message-oriented transport layer protocol.
A) UDP
B) SMTP
C)HTTP




D)TCP/IP
58. Two main important protocols of transport layer are ----------- and -------------.
A) SMTP, HTTP
B) TCP, UDP
C) UDP, HTTP
D) SMTP, UDP
59. --------------- are fast multi-port bridges that provide an economical way to resolve network
congestion.
A) Switches
B) Gateways
C) Routers
D) Brouters
60 In ----------------------- configuration, the switch begins to forward the packet as soon as it
is received. No error checking is performed on the packet, so the packet is moved
through very quickly.
A) cut-free
B) franment-free
C ) store-and-forward
D) cut-through




Part C (Four mark questions)
61. Computer networks may be classified according to the -------------- at which they operate
according to some basic reference models that are considered to be standards in the industry
such as the----------- OSI reference model and the -----------TCP/IP model.
A) network layer, seven layer, four layers
B) transport layer, five layer, six layer
C) Physical layer, five layer, four layer
D) Physical layer, four layer, four layer
62. Match the following.
1. Physical Layer i) Dialogues control
Network Layer ii) Raw bits
Session Layer iii) Data encryption
Presentation Layer iv) Routing Packet
A) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3- ii ,4-i
. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i , 4-iii
/ 1-iii, 2-ii,3-iv,4-i
5 1-iv,2-iii,3-i,4-ii




63. What are the advantages of synchronous communication.
1. it reduces overhead bits
2. The character is self contained & Transmitter and receiver need not be synchronized
3. It overcomes the two main deficiencies of the asynchronous method, that of inefficiency
and lack of error detection.
4. Transmitting and receiving clocks are independent of each other
A) 1,2, and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 1,2 and 4
D) 1,2,3 and 4
64. Match the following
1) FDM i)Light streaming
2) TDM ii) internet
3) WDM iii) analog communication
4) Packet switching Iv) digital communication
A) 1-iv, 2- i, 3-ii, 4- iii
B) 1- iii, 2-iv , 3-i, 4-ii
C) 1-ii, 2-i,3-iv 4-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
65. Match the following




1. CAT3 cable i) high speed computer communication
2. CAT5 cable ii)2 GHz t0 40 GHz
3. CAT6 & CAT 7 cable iii) 16 to 100 MHz
4. wireless transmission iv) 250 MHz to 600 MHz
A) 1-iii, 2-I 3-iv, 4-ii
B) 1-iii, 2-iv 3-ii 4-i
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv 4-i
D) 1-iv 2-iii, 3-i 4-ii
66. State true or false
i) The Hamming Distance for the codes generated using either even or odd parity will
be 2.
ii) The DLL translates the physical layers raw bit stream into discrete units called
packets
iii) The network layer wants messages to be delivered to the remote peer in the exact
same order as they are sent.
iv) The data link layer is split into MAC and LLC sub layers.
A) true, true, true true
B) true, false , true, false
C) true, false, true, true
D) true, true, false, false




67. Match the following
1. preamble i. error checking
2. SOF ii. 10101010
3. checksum iii. 2 byte
4. Length iv 1 byte
A) 1- iv 2-i 3-ii 4-iii
B) 1- ii 2-iii 3-iv 4-i
C) 1-iii 2-iv 3-ii 4-i
D) 1-ii 2-iv 3-i 4- iii
68. State true or false
i) Low bandwidth lines cause congestion
ii) Slow processors cause congestion.
iii) Adding more memory increase congestion
A) true, true, false
B) false ,true, false
C) true, false , false
D) true , true, true
69. State true or false
1. TCP protocol is a connection less protocol.
2. Automatic repeat request schemes may be used to retransmit lost or corrupted data.
3. Automatic repeat request may keep the network in a congested state.




4. TPDU is an acronym for transfer product data unit.
A) true true true true
B) False true false false
C) false true true false
D) true false false true
70. State true or false
i. The connection establishment protocol introduced by Tomlinson is known as a three way
handshake.
ii. Asymmetric release is the way the telephone system works.
iii. The 16-bit checksum field is used for error-checking of the header and data.
A) false, false, false
B) true, true, true
C) true, false, false
D) false, false, true
71. Match the following
1. Network layer i. HUB
2. Data link layer ii. Gateway
3. Transport layer iii. Router
4. Physical layer iv. Switch




A) 1-iii 2-i 3- iv 4-ii
B) 1-iii 2-iv 3-ii 4-I
C) 1-ii 2-iii 3-iv 4-i
D) 1-iv 2-i 3-ii 4- iii
72. State true or false
i. Both hubs and switches come in managed and unmanaged versions.
ii. A bridge unlike repeaters will not start retransmission until it has received the
complete packet.
iii. The looping problem cannot be avoided by using the Spanning Tree Algorithm
(STA).
A) true, true, true
B) false, true, false
C) true, true, false
D) false, false, false
73. Match the following
1. shortest path algorithm i. forwarding
2. distance vector routing ii. Session routing
3. virtual circuit iii. Static routing
4. Datagram iv. Dynamic routing
A) 1-iii, 2- iv, 3-ii, 4-i
B) 1-ii ,2-iii , 3-iv , 4-i
C) 1-iii, 4-ii, 3-i, 4- iv
D) 1-iv , 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i




74. state true or false
1. CSMA/CD is a layer 2 protocol in a layer 2 protocol in the OSI model.
2. Network interface cards (NICs) or chips normally do not accept packets addressed to other
Ethernet stations.
3. P- persistent CSMA is a slotted approximation.
4. generally LANs can sense the channel but wireless networks cannot sense the channel
effectively.
A) true, false, true, false
B) false, false, false, true
C) true, true , true , true
D) true, true, false, false
75. Find the transmitted code if the frame is (MSB) 1101011011 (LSB) and generator
4
polynomial is x
+ x + 1.
A) 1101011011 1110
B) 1001011011 0010
C) 1000011011 1100
D) 1111011000 1110




Answer Keys
Part - A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 C 21 B 41 B 61 A
2 A 22 A 42 D 62 B
3 D 23 C 43 A 63 B
4 C 24 D 44 C 64 B
5 B 25 B 45 C 65 A
6 C 26 A 46 A 66 C
7 B 27 D 47 B 67 D
8 D 28 C 48 A 68 D
9 B 29 C 49 B 69 C
10 A 30 A 50 C 70 B
11 D 31 D 51 C 71 B
12 B 32 B 52 A 72 C
13 A 33 A 53 C 73 A
14 C 34 B 54 D 74 C
15 C 35 D 55 D 75 A
16 D 36 A 56 B
17 C 37 D 57 A
18 A 38 A 58 B
19 D 39 C 59 A
20 B 40 A 60 D

COMPUTER NETWORK - 1





Model Question Paper -2009
Computer Networks
Question Number 1 to 20 -1 mark Question.
Question Number 21 to 31-2 Marks Question.
Question Number 32 to 38 - 4 Marks Question.

====================================================
1 In fiber optics, the signal source is __________ waves.
a. light
b. radio
c. infrared
d. very low frequency
====================================================
2 The ________ layer is responsible for node to node packet delivery.
a) session
b) network
c) physical
d) data link
====================================================
3 1. The speed mismatch between the sender and the receiver is called _________.
a. error control
b speed error
c flow control
d transmission control
====================================================
4 FTP runs exclusively over _________ .
a) HTTP
b) TCP
c) SMTP
d) HTML
====================================================
5 BSC is developed by ______ .
a) Motorola
b) IBM
c) Nokia
d) Toshiba
====================================================
6 Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
a. cellular telephone system
b. local telephone system
c. satellite communications
d. radio broadcasting
====================================================
7 When we talk about unguided media, usually we are referring to_____________ .
a. metallic wires
b. nonmetallic wires
c. the atmosphere
d. none of the above
====================================================
8 This is the ability to increase system performance gradually as the workload grows just by adding processors.
a) multipliability
b) inheritance
c) scalability
d) vectorization
====================================================
9 PSTN represents _________ .
a) private swithced transmission network
b) public switched telephone network
c) private switched telephone network
d) public switched transmission network
====================================================
10 SMTP refers to ___________ .
a) Simple mail transfer protocol
b) Small mail transfer protocol
c) Simple mass transfer protocol
d) Small mail transfer protocol
====================================================
11 Class A , Class B and Class C together are referred to as_______
addressing or primary address class if the IP.
a) classful
b) eventful
c) graded
d) ranked
====================================================
12 ________ overcame the registered number issue by assigning each organization one network numbers from the IPv4 address
space.
a) Tracking
b) Subnetting
c) Packeting
d) Switching
====================================================
13 Equipment that controls the physical and electrical termination of the ISDN at the user’s premises is called ______.
a. NT1
b. NT2
c. NT3
d. NT4
====================================================
14 A data channel contains ________________ .
a. control information
b. management information
c. miscellaneous functions
d. user data/information
====================================================
15 QOS represents __________ .
a) Quality of System
b) Quality of Service
c) Queue of System
d) Queue of Service
====================================================
16 ISDN is an acronym for______________.
a.Inform ation Services for Digital Networks
b.Internetwork System for Data Networks
c.Integrated Services Digital Networks
d.Integrated Signals Digital Network
====================================================
19. Reference point ____ is the specification for connecting NT1 with NT2.
a. R
b. S
c. T
d. U
====================================================
20 The radio communication spectrum is divided into bands based on _________.
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. cost and hardware
d. transmission medium
====================================================
21 Which international agency is concerned with standards in science and technology?
a. ISO
b. OSI
c. EIA
d. ANSI
====================================================
22 __________ blocks are identified using syntax similar to that of IPv4 addresses: a four-part dotted-decimal address, followed by
a slash, then a number from 0 to 32: A.B.C.D/N.
a) IPv4 CICR
b) IPv4 MIDR
c) IPv4 CIMR
d) IPv4 CIDR
====================================================
23 The term "e-mail" applies both to the Internet e-mail system based on the __________ and to _________ allowing users within one organization to e-mail each other.
a) FTP , Intranet Systems
b) SMTP , Intranet Systems
c) FTP , Internet Systems
d) SMTP , Internet Systems
====================================================
24 Which agency created standards for telephone communications ( V series) and for network interfaces and public networks ( X series)?
a. ATT
b. ITU-T
c. ANSI
d. ISO
====================================================
25 _______ CSMA is less greedy whereas ________ CSMA is selfish .
a) Non-persistent , 1-persistent
b) 1-persistent, p-persistent
c) p-persistent, 1-persistent
d) 1-persistent, non-persistent
====================================================
26 The BRI is composed of ____________.
a. two B channels
b. one H channel
c. one D channel
d. a and c
====================================================
27 IP Packet is a _________ and ________- based model.
a) connectionless , network
b) connection, network
c) connectionless, datagram
d) connection, datagram
====================================================
28 _____________ are special-interest groups that quickly test,evaluate, and standardize new technologies.
a. Forums
b. Regulatory agencies
c. Standards organizations
d. All of the above
====================================================
29 When the angle of refraction is ______ the angle of incidence, the light beam is moving from a more dense to a less dense medium.
a. more than
b. less than
c. equal to
d. none of the above.
====================================================
30 For downlinks, current design practice is to use a minimum elevation angle of about _____ degrees to _______ degrees depending on the frequency.
a) 45 , 90
b) 40, 60
c) 10 , 35
d) 5 , 20
====================================================
31 The ALOHA network was created at the University of _______ in 1970 under the leadership of __________.
a) Hawaii, John Abramson
b) Texas , John Abramson
c) Texas , Norman Abramson
d) Hawaii , Norman Abramson
====================================================
32 Consider the following statements :
P) The Aloha protocol is an OSI layer 2 protocol for LAN.
Q) Pure Aloha had a maximum throughput of about 18.4%.
Which of the following is correct?
a) Both Statements P and Q are True
b) Both Statements P and Q are False
c) Statement P is True and Statement Q is False
d) Statement P is False and Statement Q is True.
====================================================
33 Consider the following statements:
P) Gopher is a distributed document search and retrieval network
protocol designed for the Internet.
Q) The original Gopher system was released in late spring of
1981 by Mark McCahill, Farhad Anklesaria, Paul Lindner, Dan
Torrey, and Bob Alberti of the University of Minnesota.
Which of the following is correct?
a) Both Statements P and Q are True
b) Both Statements P and Q are False
c) Statement P is True and Statement Q is False
d) Statement P is False and Statement Q is True
====================================================
34 Consider the following statements :
P) Based on transmission technology networks are classified as broad cast
links and point to point links.
Q) Geographically localized networks or smaller networks tend to use
broadcasting whereas larger networks usually are point-to-point networks.
Which of the following is correct about the two statements?
a) Statement P and Statement Q are both True
b) Statement P and Statement Q are both False
c) Statement P is True nad Statement Q is False
d) statement P is False and Statement Q is True
====================================================
35 Consider the following statements:
Q) larger networks usually are point-to-point networks.
Which of the following is correct about the two statements ?
a) Statement P and Statement Q are both True
b) Statement P and Statement Q are both False
c) Statement P is True nad Statement Q is False
d) statement P is False and Statement Q is True
====================================================
36 Problems which dictate that the minimum elevation angle of the earth station's antenna be somewhat greater than 0 degrees are _______________ .
a) buildings, trees, atmospheric attenuation, electrical noise
b) trees, atmoshperic attenuation, transmission towers, magnetic forces
c) transmission towers, earths magnetic forces, moisture, distance
d) trees, transmission towers, earths magnetic forces, radio activity
====================================================
37 Fiber optic communication system uses:
a Simplex transmission
b half-duplex
c full-duplex
d None of the above
====================================================
38 Complex routing strategies can be, and are, often used in systems such as _________, _____, or _______, which are sometimes used as underlying technologies to support IP networks.
a) MPLS, ATM or Frame Relay
b) CTLNS, ATM or Slot
c) ATM, PDTN or Slot
d) LAN, ATM, or Frame Relay
====================================================
                                              *THE END*
====================================================

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING

Sikkim Manipal University
Model Question Paper
Subject: Software Engineering
Subject code: MI0024
Total Time: 1 hour
Total Marks: 70
Notes:
1. Question paper is divided into three parts i.e. Part A, Part B, and Part C.
2. Part A consist 20 questions of 1 mark each
3. Part B consist 11 questions of 2 marks each.
4. Part C consist 07 questions of 4 marks each.
5. All questions are compulsory
==================================================



                        Part A (One Mark Question)
==================================================
1) Computer Software has become the engine that drives business ------
a. decision making
b.cost reductions
c.revenue generation
d.time saving
==================================================
2)  ______ has become the basis for various decision making.
a.Software
b.Intelligence
c.Ideas
d.Database
==================================================
3)________ is also known as Waterfall model.
a.Linear programming model
b.Non linear programming model
c.linear sequential model
d.non linear sequential model
==================================================
4)______plans, motivate, organizes, and controls the practitioners who work
on various processes of the software.
a.customers
b.end-users
c.practitioners
d.project manager
==================================================
5) Normalizing quality and productivity measures can be done by considering the
_____of the software.
a.nature
b.cost
c.complexity
d.size
==================================================
6) Determination of _________is the first activity in software planning.
a.objectives
b.software requirements
c.customers requirements
d.software scope
==================================================
7)_______ leads to optimization of the software resources.
a.Reusability
b.Replanning
c.Relocation
d.Repeatability
==================================================
8)For higher -grade of materials the tolerances are _______ .
a.large
b.very large
c.small
d.very small
==================================================
9)_______refers to the characteristics that designers specify for an item.
a.Enhancing
b.Quality of Design
c.Measuring
d.Maintaining
==================================================
10)The quality movement started in the 1940s with a major contribution on quality
aspects from _______ .
a.Smith
b.Deming
c.Juran
d.Fayol
==================================================
11)Software configuration management (SCM) is applied throughout the ______
process.
a.organization
b.system
c.department
d.software
==================================================
12)SCI represents ______ .
a.Software Controlled Items
b.Software Categorized Items
c.System Controlled Items
d.Software Configuration Items
==================================================
13)_________ is a set or arrangement of things so related as to form a unity or organic
whole.
a.frames
b.procedure
c.system
d.process
==================================================
14) In the step ________________ the system engineer identifies the needs and
specifications pertaining to the applications.
a.Process Input
b.Process Linkages
c.Process Input
d.Process Definition
==================================================
15) A _________ refers to a systematic style of doing things.
a.programme
b.system
c.transaction
d.business
==================================================
16) Requirements engineering activities result in the specification of software’s___
a. operational characteristics
b. basic characteristics
c. fundamental characteristics
d. utility characteristics
==================================================

17) Requirement analysis provides the developer and the customer with the means to
__________ of the software.
a. assess features
b. assess quality
c. enhance features
d. increase modularity
==================================================
18)________ is the acquisition of a repertoire of alternatives, the raw material of
design: components, component solutions, and knowledge, all contained in
catalogs, textbooks, and the mind.
a.Procurement
b.Planning
c.Collection
d.Diversification
==================================================
19) Measurement is the process by which numbers or symbols are assigned to the
attributes of entities in the real world in such a way as to define them according to
clearly defined rules. This was stated by _______ .
a.Benton
b.Fenton
c.Kapton
d.Suton
==================================================
20) The extent to which a program satisfies its specification and fulfills the customer's
mission objectives. This refers to McCall quality factor of __________ .
a.correctness
b.efficiency
c.reliability
d.integrity
==================================================
                           Part B (Two Mark Question)
==================================================
21) A software refers to instructions which when executed provide desired ____
and _________ and data structures that enable the programs to adequately
a.functionality and utility
b.function and performance
c.flexibility and utility
d.utility and efficiency
==================================================
22)Software project scope must be ________ and ______at the management and
technical levels.
a.detailed and elaborate
b.well defined and detailed
c.unambiguous and understandable
d.limited and clear
==================================================
23) It is necessary to have a measurement done for the software with respect to its ____
and ______ .
a.utility and characteristics
b.utility and functionality
c.characteristics and behaviour
d.behaviour and utility
==================================================
24)The ______ and _____ of the risk depends upon the various forces that affect the
project modules and the project as a whole.
a.size and complexity
b.nature and magnitude
c.magnitude and number
d.nature and magnitude
==================================================
25)A project plan refers to a blue print of the project ______ and its ________ .
a.cost, impact
b.gains , benefits
c.plan , execution
d.completion time, success
==================================================
26)Quality assurance consists of the _________ and ________ functions of
management.
a.auditing , reporting
b.selection of processes and auditing of processes
c.adding new processes and modifying resources
d.checking , managing
==================================================
27)The output of most of the software process is the information which is divided into
programs, ___________ and ____________ .
a.entities and objects
b.attributes and documents
c.documents and data
d.classes and object
==================================================
28)________and ___________ often fall into the reactive systems category.
a.real time and embedded systems
b.terms and conditions
c.guidelines and regulations
d.specifications and requirements
==================================================
29)The analyst studies the ________and the _______ to understand software in a
system context, and to review the software scope that was used to generate
planning estimates.
a.system specification, software project plan
b.system problem, system specification
c.customers requirements, requirement specificaiton
d.system paramaters , necissities
==================================================
30)Sometimes, testability is used to mean how adequately a particular set of tests will
cover the product. It's also used by the military to mean how easily a tool can be
_____ and ______ in the field.
a.checked , repaired
b.verified , developed
c.understood , applied
d.verified , applied
==================================================
31) Attributes are attached to _____ and _______ .
a.functions and modules
b.objects and functions
c.objects and classes
d.modules and classes
==================================================
                  Part C (Four Mark Question)
==================================================
32) Consider the following statements :
P) Software is a manufactured component which is developed.
Q) Software does not undergo wear out which is seen in many manufactured
components.
Which of the following is correct?
a.Both statements P and Q are correct
b.Both statements P and Q are incorrect
c.Statement P is correct and Statement Q is incorrect
d.Statement P is incorrect and Statement Q is correct
==================================================
33)With respect to the software integrity , attack can be made on all three components
of software _____ , ______ and _______ .
a.programs, data and documents
b.modules, header and documents
c.header, footer and modules
d.programs, modules, documents
==================================================
34)An effective strategy to deal with risks is generally based on the following issues
of risk.
a.avoidance , monitoring , contingency planning and risk management
b.initial planning, monitoring, contingency planning and cost management
c.initial planning , avoidance, monitoring, and contingency planning
d.monitoring, contingency planning, contingency control and cost control.
==================================================
35)Consider the following statements :
P) Designers specif y the characteristics of the quality of a product.
Q) The grade of materials used in the product development and product
characteristics, permissible tolerances, and performance specifications contribute to
the quality of design.
Which of the following is correct?
a.both are true
b.both are false
c.statement P is true and statement Q is false
d.statement P is false and statement Q is true
==================================================
36)Consider the following statements:
P) SCM is also responsible for the identification of individual SCIs and various
versions of the software, the auditing of the software configuration to ensure that it
has been properly developed, and the reporting of all changes applied to the
configuration.
Q) To sell software configuration items, each must be separately named and then
organized using an object-oriented approach. .
Which of the following is correct?
a.Both statements are true
b.Both statements are false
c.Statement P is true and Statement Q is false
d.Statement P is false and Statement Q is true
==================================================
37) The various steps in the modelling process that the systems engineer follows are:
a.Definition, behaviour, attributes, linkages
b.Formulation, attributes, linkages, generalization
c.Definition, behaviour, Input, linkages
d.Formulation, relationships, linkages, generalization
==================================================
38)An analysis model consists of data dictionary at the center of three main segmented
diagrams: ______ , ________ and ________ .
a.ERD, STD and DFD
b.SAD, ERD and DFD
c.DFD, ERD and EID
d.ERD, STD and CAD
 ==================================================
                                             *THE END*
 ==================================================

C++ SAMPLE PAPER

===========================================
Model Question Paper

Subject Code: MC0066

Subject Name: OOPs using C++

Credits: 4 Marks: 140
==========================================
Part A (One mark questions)

1. _______________ is an OOP Language.

A. Basic

B. Fortan

C. C++

D. Cobol

2. ---------------- allows you to create a derived class that inherits properties from more than one

base class.

A) Multilevel inheritance

B) Multiple inheritance

C)Hybrid Inheritance

D) Hierarchical Inheritance

3. _______________ feature in OOP allows to reuse code

A) Polymorphism

B) Inheritance

C) Encapsulation

D) Data hiding

4. A class that declares or inherits a virtual function is called -------------------

A) Encapsulation class

B)inherited class

C) polymorphic class

D) static class

5. C++ header file that handles input output functions is ____________

A) iostream.h

B) iomanip.h

C) string.h

D) fstream.h

6. -------------- are bound dynamically at run time.

A) static class

B) virtual function

C) friend function

D) inline function

7. ---------- pointers are not modifiable.

A) that

B) this

C) Indirection

D) Address

8. ---------------- classes are used in cases where one class is tightly coupled to another

class

A) Abstract

B) friend

C) static

D) virtual

9. The extension of C++ source file is _______________

A) .txt

B) .doc

C) .c

D) .cpp

10. The ------------------ keyword/s do not apply to friend functions, as the class has no control

over the scope of friends.

A) public

B) protected

C) private

D) both A) and B)

11. The extension of C++ object code is __________________
A) .obj

B) .cpp

C) .ppt

D) .xls

12. --------------- do not break encapsulation, but rather enhance a class interface.

A) Static functions

B)Friend functions

C) Dynamic functions

D) none of these

13. The function-------------- will return the last read character and will move the inside pointer,

one with -1 char.

A) putback()

B) flush()

C) peek()

D) getline()



14.--------------is an identifier that can be inserted into an output stream or extracted from

an input stream in order to produce a desired effect.

A)Stream

B) Manipulator

C) this

D) Flag

15. The error occuring due to missing semicolon is __________________

A) Syntax

B) Logical

C) Linker

D) Runtime

16. Identify the modulators from the following list.

i. endl ii. hex iii. auto iv. Default

A) i only

B) ii only

C) both i and ii

D) all of these

17. Which of these manipulator is used to insert null character in a string.

A) endl

B) ends

C) unitbuf

D) setfill

18. Which of these file open mode you use to delete all previous content in the file.

A) ios :: ate

B) ios ::in

C) ios:: app

D) ios::trunc

19. A class generated from a class template is called --------------------

A) Inherited class

B) generated class.

C) derived class

D) base class

20. The size of an int variable in C++ is _____________bytes

A) 4.

B) 2

C) 1

D) 8

21. -------------- is very useful when templates of template come into usage.

A) friend function

B) static function

C) typedef

D) inheritance

22. Which of these c++ feature allow you to create classes that are dynamic in terms of the

types of data they can handle.

A) Inheritance

B) Templates

C) Polymorphism

D) information hiding

23. Create the required classes by plugging in the actual type for the type parameters, this

process is commonly known as ------------------------

A) Instantiating a class.

B) encapsulation of class

C) booting of class

D) none of these

24. What are the two basic models in the exception handling theory.

A) caught and uncaught

B) termination and resumption

C) try and block
D) none of these

25. Which of these is/are the exception classes derived from logic_error

i) domain_error ii) out_of_range iii) bad_cast iv) bad_alloc

A) i),ii),iii) only

B) iv) only

C) i) and iv) only

D) iii) only

26. Each catch clause (exception handler) is like a little function that takes a ----------------

argument/s of one particular type.

A) many

B) two

C) single

D) either A) or B)

27. The size of an double variable in C++ is ________________ bytes

A) 10

B) 2

C) 4

D) 8

28. The exception specification is like a----------------, It tells the user to write exception

handling code and what exceptions to handle.

A) library file

B) function prototype

C) header file

D) built-in function

29. Which of these exception reports a failure to allocate storage.

A) bad_cast

B) bad_typeid

C) length_error

D) none of these

30. Stack is an example for ---------------- structure.

A) LIFO

B) FIFO

C) SISO

D) LILO
31. The standard sequence containers include --------------

i) vector ii) deque iii)list iv) stack

A) i) and ii) only

B) i),ii) and iii)

C) iii) and iv) only

D) i),ii),iii) and iv)

32. STL stands for --------------

A) standard template library

B) standard template link

C) stack template link

D) single temporary list

33. Iterators which can move freely any number of steps in one operation are called -------------

A) input iterators

B) forward iterators

C) random access iterators

D) output iterators
34. There are ------------- types of sequence containers in the STL.

A) two

B) four

C) eight

D) three

35. To destroy element at the end of vector which of these vector access function

is used.

A)pop_back()

B) push_back()

C) insert()

D) destroy()

36. --------------- diagram shows the change of an object through time.

A) Activity

B) State

C)Collaboration

D)Use case

37. Which of these link is used to avoid repetition of scenarios in multiple use cases.

A) Include

B) Generalization

C) Extends

D) None of these

38. Models in UML consist of ---------------- that interact by sending each other, messages.

A) Actor

B) objects

C) use case

D) none of these

39. Which one of the following symbols is used for indicating comments?

A) >>

B) <<

C) //

D)**

40. Use case diagrams are helpful in which of these areas.

A) determining failure

B) communicating with clients

C) generating test cases

D) all of these

Part B (Two mark questions)

41. ------------------- is a master function required in all C++ program and execution begins from

the first statement of this function.

A) Virtual function

B) main()

C) inline()

D) getch()

42. ----------------- is the ability of objects belonging to different types to respond to method calls

of methods of the same name, each one according to an appropriate type-specific behavior.

A) Inheritance

B) Virtuality

C) polymorphism

D) None of these.

43. State true or false

1. Inheritance is implemented in C++ through the mechanism of derivation.

2. Multiple inheritance allows you to create a derived class that inherits properties from

more than one base class.

A) true, true

B) true, false

C) false , true

D) false , false

44. State true or false

1. Polymorphic functions are functions that cannot be applied to objects of more than one
type.

2. Overloaded functions are statically bound at run time.

A) false, true

B) false, false

C) true , true

D) true, false

45. -------------- statement takes the control out of the loop.

A) break

B) const

C) continue

D) auto

46. The --------- and ------------------- keywords do not apply to friend functions, as the class has

no control over the scope of friends.

A) public, protected

B) Private, public

C) protected , private

D) private , protected

47. -------------- library function can be used to copy the contents of one string to another string.

A) strcp()

B)strcmp()

C) strcpy()

D) stringcopy()

48. The current reading position, which is the index of the next byte that will be read from

the file is called -----------------------.

A) set pointer

B) curr pointer

C) put pointer

D ) get pointer

49. Which of these function returns the ASCII code of the char, but not the char itself

A) peek()

B) asc()

C) tellg()

D) seekp()

50. To perform identical operations for each type of data compactly and conveniently, we use -------------

A)Inline function

B) function templates.

C) this pointer

D) friend function

51. A static data member generated from a static data member template is called -------static data member

A) inherited

B) base

C) generated

D) derived

52. State true or false

i. You can partially specialize class templates for certain types.

ii. You cannot overload function templates.

A) true, false

B) false, true

C) true, true

D) false, false

53. Default values for the arguments have to be specified during ----------------

A) Initialization

B) Declaration

C) instantiation

D) end of the program

54. Exceptions should not be used for---------------

A) asynchronous events

B) ordinary error condition

C ) flow of control

D) all of the above

55. State true or false

i. C++ provides syntax to allow you to politely tell the user what exceptions this

function throws, so the user may handle them.

ii. To use set_unexpected(), you must include the header file .

A) true , false

B) false, false

C) true, true

D) false, true

56. Which of this is standard associative containers ?

A) vector

B) set

C) deque

D) list

57. The advantage of passing by reference is-------------------------------

A) returning multiple value

B) modifying original values

C) Both A )and B)

D) Neither A) nor B)

58. The operator [] allows you to access a single character in a string, but without any

bounds checking , if you want bounds checking which of these function do you use .

A) at()

B) ioc()

C) st()

D) ooc()

59. Member functions of a class can be defined outside the class using ---------- operator

along with the class name.

A) **

B) &&

C) ::

D) ->

60. Sate true or false

i) Function enable to reuse code.

ii) In if else statement , at any point of time statements in both the if and else part may

be executed.

A) true ,false

B) true , true

C) false , false

D) false, true


Part C (Four mark questions)

61. Write the output of the following C++ code

# include

void main()

{ int x=1;

switch (x)

{

case 0 : cout<<”zero”;

break;

case 1: cout <<“one”;

case 2: cout<

}

}

A) zero

B) one

C) onetwo

D) syntax error

62. What is the output of the following program.

#include

using namespace std;

class Base {

public:

char* name;

void display() {

cout << name << endl;

}

};

class Derived: public Base {

public:

char* name;

void display() {

cout <

}

};

int main() {

Derived d;

d.name = "Derived Class";

d.Base::name = "Base Class";

Derived* dptr = &d;

// standard conversion from Derived* to Base*

Base* bptr = dptr;

// call Base::display()

bptr->display();

}

A) syntax error

B)Base Class

C) Derived Class

D) name

63. Match the following

1. this pointer                                          i) virtual

2. non static member function               ii) not transitive

3. friend function                                  iii) not modifiable

4. Friend class                                       iv) tightly coupled

A) 1-ii,2-I,3-iv,4-iii

B) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv

C) 1-iv,2-iii,3-I,4-ii

D) 1-iii,2-iv,3-I,4-ii

64. State true or false

1. A static member function cannot be declared with the keywords virtual, const,volatile,const volatile

2. A static member function can have access to the 'this' pointer of the class.

3. Friend classes are used in cases where one class is tightly coupled to another class.

4. Static data types can be accessed without instantiation of the class in C++.

A) true, true, false, false

B) true, true, true, false

C) true, false, true, true

D) false, true, true, true

65. match the following

1. godbit            i) End of file has been reached

2. eofbit          ii) Fatal I/O error

3. failbit          iii) non-fatal I/O error

4. badbit        iv) no errors

A) 1- ii 2-iii 3-iv 4-I

B) 1-iv 2- i 3-iii 4-ii

C) 1-iii, 2-i 3-iv 4-ii

D) 1- ii, 2- iv 3- iii 4-i

66. State true or false

i. When you are reading a file, if you want to ignore certain amount of characters use flush() function .

ii. Manipulators are global functions designed to be used in conjunction with insertion (<<) and

extraction >>operators.

iii. The essential characteristic of stream processing is that data elements must be sent to or

received from a stream one at a time, i.e. in serial fashion.

iv. The Input/Output system in C++ holds information about the result of every I/O operation.

A) true, true, true, true

B) false, true, true, false

C) false, true, true, true

D) false, true, false, true

67. ------------------------ are very useful when implementing generic constructs like vectors,

stacks, lists, queues which can be used with any arbitrary type.

A) Templates

B) constructor

C ) destructor

D) status Flag

68. Find the output of the following program

//virtual.cpp

# include

class base

{ public:

virtual void show() // virtual function

{cout<<"base”<

class derv1:public base

{ public:

void show()

{cout<<"derv1”<

class derv2: public base

{ public:

void show()

{cout<<“derv2”<

void main()

{

derv1 dv1;

derv2 dv2;

base *ptr;

ptr=&dv1;

ptr->show();

ptr=&dv2;

ptr->show();

}

A) derv 1


     derv2

B) derv2

derv2

C)derv1

derv1

D) syntax error

69. Which of these is/are true about exception specification

i) the exception specification is like function specification

ii) it tells the use to write exception handling code and what exception to handle.

iii) It tells the compiler the exception that may come out of this function.

A) i) only

B) i) and ii) only

C) i),ii) and iii)

D) i) and iii) only

70. State true or false

i. range_error is the exception class derived from logic_error Exception.

ii. bad_cast is the exception class derived from logic_error Exception.

iii. bad_alloc is the exception class derived from runtime_error Exception.

A) true, false, true

B) false, true, true

C) true, true, false

D) true, true, true

71.

Match the following

1. Stack            i) associative container

2. Queue         ii) sequence container

3. Vector       iii) LIFO

4. multimap      iv) FIFO

A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-I

B) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii , 4- i

C) 1-iii, 2-iv , 3-i , 4-ii

D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

72. State true or false

i. STL algorithms are dependent of containers, which significantly reduces the

complexity of the library.

ii. Associative containers are not used to store objects that we want to be able to

retrieve using a key.

iii. Iterators are a generalized abstraction of pointers, designed to allow programmers to

access different container types in a consistent way.

A) false, false , true

B) true, false, false

C) true, true, false

D) true, true, true

73. Match the following

1. polymorphism          i. can be overloaded

2. inheritance              ii. Cannot be overloaded

3. constructor           iii. Reuse of code

4. destructor             iv. Same content different form

A) 1-ii 2-iii 3-iv 4-i

B) 1-iii 2-i 3-ii 4-iv

C) 1-iv 2-iii 3-i 4- ii

D) 1-iii 2-iv 3-i 4-ii

74. state true or false

a. The class diagrams describes the types of objects in the system and the static

relationship between them.

b. If the attribute is declared final its value can be changed.

c. The composition association is represented by the hollow diamond.

A) true ,true, false

B) true, false, false

C) false, false, false

D) false , true, true

75. State true or false

1. Static data need not be initialized.

2. Friend function can be declared anywhere within the class declaration.

3.The public and protected keywords do not apply to friend functions.

A) false, true , true

B) false, true, false

C) true, false , false

D) false, false, false

================================================
                                                 "the end"
================================================



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