UGC NET STUDY MATERIALS

UGC NET General Paper I Solved - June 2009

1.       Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:
(A) Linguistic expression
(B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D) Comprehension of subject
Answer: D
2.       Why do teachers use teaching aid?
(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To teach within understanding level of students
(C) For students’ attention
(D) To make students attentive
Answer: B
3.       Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:
(A) Learning     (B) Research  
(C) Heredity      (D) Explanation
Answer: A
4.       Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
Answer: B
5.       Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(A) Attitudes                  (B) Concepts
(C) Knowledge             (D) Maturation
Answer: D
6.       How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?
(A) Through its impartiality     (B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity           (D) All of these
Answer: D
7.       Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) All the above
Answer: B
8.       The basis on which assumptions are formulated:
(A) Cultural background of the country
(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Answer: A
9.       Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research?
(A) Philosophical research    (B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research        (D) All the above
Answer: D
10.    We use Factorial Analysis:
(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables
Answer: C
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:
While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings, democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.
The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue.
It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule.
Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration.
When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament.
There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.
Answer the following questions:
11.       In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Answer: C
12.       What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?
(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.
Answer: B
13.       Democracy is practiced where:
(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Answer: A
14.       Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Answer: A
15.       Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats              (B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons               (D) Merchants and artisans
Answer: D
16.       Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world?
(A) TPS                          (B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference (D) Video teletext
Answer: C
17.       Which is not 24 hours news channel?
(A) NDTV24x7  (B) ZEE News
(C) Aajtak          (D) Lok Sabha channel
Answer: D
18.       The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:
(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D) Entertainment only
Answer: B
19.       In communication chatting in internet is:
(A) Verbal communication     (B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication   (D) Grapevine communication
Answer: C
20.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I                                       List-II
           (Artists)                      (Art)
(a) Pandit Jasraj                       (i) Hindustani vocalist
(b) Kishan Maharaj                 (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar                     (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar                     (iv) Dance
Codes:   
               (a)     (b)     (c)     (d)   
(A)   (i)      (ii)     (iii)    (iv)   
(B)   (i)      (iii)    (iv)    (ii)   
(C)   (i)      (iii)    (ii)     (iv)   
(D)   (iii)    (ii)     (i)      (iv)   
Answer: C
21.       Insert the missing number in the following:
3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37     (B) 40
(C) 38     (D) 45
Answer: C
22.       In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A) SPEST        (B) SPSET   
(C) SPETS        (D) SEPTS
Answer: C
23.       The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:
BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL            (B) RPNL   
(C) LNPR          (D) LJHF
Answer: Correct answer is TQNL
24.       What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001?
(A) Friday          (B) Tuesday
(C) Sunday       (D) Wednesday
Answer: Correct answer is Monday
25.       Find out the wrong number in the sequence.
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27     (B) 34   
(C) 43     (D) 48
Answer: B

26.       In a deductive argument conclusion is:
(A) Summing up of the premises
(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Answer: C
27.       'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:
(A) Some man are mortal       (B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal             (D) No mortal is man
Answer: A
28.       A deductive argument is valid if:
(A) premises are false and conclusion true
(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Answer: D
29.       Structure of logical argument is based on:
(A) Formal validity                   (B) Material truth
(C) Linguistic expression       (D) Aptness of examples
Answer: A
30.    Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex.  One man is facing South.  Which direction are the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West       (B) North and West
(C) South and East     (D) None of these
Answer: B
Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following Venn diagram in which there are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.
31.       If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the following is to be selected?
(A) g       (B) b   
(C) c       (D) e
Answer: C
32.       If you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A) e       (B) g
(C) b       (D) a
Answer: B
Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.
33.       In which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum?
(A) 2005                        (B) 2006   
(C) 2004                        (D) 2007
Answer: B
34.       In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent compared to the previous year?
(A) 2004                        (B) 2007   
(C) 2005                        (D) 2006
Answer: B
35.       In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the quantity of previous year?
(A) 2004                        (B) 2005   
(C) 2006                        (D) 2007
Answer: C
36.       What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet   (B) a web browser
(C) a web server                      (D) all of the above
Answer: D
37.       Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
(A) Essar           (B) BPL   
(C) Hutchison  (D) Airtel
Answer: D
38.       Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:
(A) Bangalore   (B) Sri Harikota       
(C) Chennai     (D) Ahmedabad
Answer: B
39.       What is blog?
(A) Online music
(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Answer: C
40.    Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?
(A) www.jeevansathi.com     
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com             
(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
Answer: D
41.       Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Answer: D
42.       Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
(A) nearby water bodies         (B) melting
(C) rain fall only                       (D) sea only
Answer: C
43.       Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland  (B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region             (D) Indian desert
Answer: C
44.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
                      List-I                                                       List-II
                  (Institutes)                                                 (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute                             (i) Kolkata
(b) Space Application Centre                              (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration         (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress    (iv) Jodhpur
Codes:
               (a)     (b)    (c)    (d)       
(A) (iv)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)       
(B) (iv)    (ii)     (i)     (iii)       
(C) (iii)    (i)     (ii)     (iv)       
(D) (i)     (ii)     (iv)    (iii)       
Answer: A
45.       Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:
(A) 2005                        (B) 2004   
(C) 2006                        (D) 2007
Answer: B
46.       The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:
(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Answer: A
47.       Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?
(A) Delhi University                
(B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University            
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: D
48.       Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators" ?
(A) Part I            (B) Part II   
(C) Part III          (D) Part IV
Answer: D
49.       Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
(A) Article 371 A           (B) Article 371 B      
(C) Article 371 C          (D) Article 263
Answer: A
50.    Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
(A) Right to information          (B) Citizens' Charter
(C) Social Auditing                  (D) Judicial Activism
Answer: D

UGC NET General Paper I Solved - December 2009

1.       The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Answer: D
2.       Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3            (B) 2 & 3        
(C) 2, 3 & 4        (D) 2 & 4
Answer: C
3.       Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC    (B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE    (D) NCTE and IGNOU
Answer: B
(NCTE – National Council of Teacher Education, NAAC – National Accreditation and Assessment Council)
4.       The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
Answer: C
5.       Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Answer: A
6.       What quality the students like the most in a teacher?
(A) Idealist philosophy            (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline                           (D) Entertaining
Answer: B
7.       A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
Answer: A
8.       The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research    (B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research      (D) Content analysis
Answer: B
9.       Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
Answer: B
10.    The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation            (B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling                         (D) Content Analysis
Answer: D
11.       Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research            (B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research        (D) Experimental research
Answer: D
12.       Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00             (B) 0.6
(C) 0.5                (D) 0.3
Answer: B
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18:
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.

13.       Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?
(A) Wavell’s Journal   (B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials             (D) Red Fort Prisoners
Answer: C
14.       The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
Answer: A
15.       I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly  
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association  
(D) Indian National Army
Answer: D
16.       ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Answer: D
17.       The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus        (B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs           (D) Hindus and Muslims both
Answer: B
18.       The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
19.       The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain           (B) The United States
(C) Japan                      (D) China
Answer: D
20.    The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Answer: A
21.       Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?
(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
Answer: D
22.       Communication becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
Answer: A
23.       The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was
(A) Orkut                        (B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com          (D) Twitter
Answer: A
24.       Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to use the projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: B
25.       January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996?
(A) Sunday                   (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday            (D) Saturday
Answer: B

26.       When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0       (B) 1
(C) 2       (D) 4
Answer: B
27.       The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A) 74     (B) 75
(C) 76     (D) None of the above
Answer: B
28.       There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be answered in
(A) 20 ways       (B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways    (D) 1024 ways
Answer: A
29.       What will be the next term in the following?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO          (B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ            (D) LMRS
Answer: C
30.    Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?
(A) Rs. 290        (B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360       (D) Rs. 440
Answer: B
31.       Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence           (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations    (D) repeated observation
Answer: C
32.       Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature          (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature                   (D) laws of nature
Answer: A
33.       To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical                              (B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying      (D) analytical
Answer: D
34.       Which of the following is an analogous statement?
(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
Answer: A
Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the number of persons reading the newspapers.
35.       How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers?
(A) 23     (B) 25
(C) 27     (D) 29
Answer: C

36.       How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers?
(A) 23     (B) 25
(C) 2       (D) 48
Answer: C
37.       Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic) behavior of the variable f(t)?
(A) 1       (B) 2
(C) 3       (D) 4
Answer: C
Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40:
38.       In which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y was the maximum?
(A) 2003            (B) 2004
(C) 2005            (D) 2006
Answer: C
39.       What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two hospitals in a year?
(A) 8000            (B) 6000
(C) 4000            (D) 2000
Answer: A
40.    In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in hospital X?
(A) 2003            (B) 2004
(C) 2005            (D) 2006
Answer: D
41.       Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection?
(A) Census of India
(B) National Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India
(D) National Family Health Survey
Answer: C
42.       Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?
(A) 88  91  90  92  89  91
(B) 0  1  1  0  –1  –2
(C) 3  5  2  4  1  5
(D) 0  5  8  10  –2  –8
Answer: D
43.       Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet?
(A) Data Encryption    (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding            (D) Information Retrieval
Answer: D
44.       Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?
(A) Terabyte      (B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte       (D) Gigabyte
Answer: A
45.       bit stands for
(A) binary information term    (B) binary digit
(C) binary tree                          (D) Bivariate Theory
Answer: B
46.       Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?
(A) Array            (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue         (D) Stack
Answer: B
47.       Which one of the following is not a network device?
(A) Router         (B) Switch
(C) Hub                         (D) CPU
Answer: D
48.       A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A) High-level language         (B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language         (D) Natural language
Answer: A
49.       The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan           
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast                              
(D) Delta regions
Answer: A
50.    The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of which mountain peak?
(A) Kanchenjunga      (B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna                        (D) Dhaulavira
Answer: B
51.       Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles       (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles      (D) Thermal Power Plants
Answer: D
52.       Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector     (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry      (D) Chemical industry
Answer: D
53.       Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Answer: A
54.       The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes          (B) Floods
(C) Landslides                         (D) Volcanoes
Answer: B
55.       The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public             institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: B
56.       According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: B
57.       Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
(A) Seminar      (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture        (D) Group Discussion
Answer: D
58.       The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: A
59.       The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: B
60.    Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: A

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