UGC NET STUDY MATERIALS

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper II - June 2008

1.       Which of the following does not define a tree?
(A)  A tree is a connected acyclic graph.
(B)  A tree is a connected graph with n-1 edges where ’n’ is the number of vertices in the graph.
(C)  A tree is an acyclic graph with n-1 edges where ’n’ is the number of vertices in the graph.
(D) A tree is a graph with no cycles.
Answer: D
2.       The complexity of Kruskal’s minimum spanning tree algorithm on a graph with ‘n’ nodes and ‘e’ edges is :
(A) O(n)             (B) O(n log n)
(C) O(e log n)   (D) O(e)
Answer: C
3.       If a code is t-error correcting, the minimum Hamming distance is equal to:
(A) 2t+1              (B) 2t              
(C) 2t-1              (D) t-1
Answer: A
4.       The set of positive integers under the operation of ordinary multiplication is:
(A) not a monoid          (B) not a group
(C) a group                   (D) an Abelian group
Answer: D
5.       In a set of 8 positive integers, there always exists a pair of numbers having the same remainder when divided by:
5       .(A) 7                   (B) 11            
(C) 13                 (D) 15
Answer: A
6.       An example of a tautology is:
(A) x v y             (B) x v (~y)
(C) x v (~x)        (D) (x=>y)˄(x<=y)
Answer: C
7.       Among the logic families RTL, TTL, ECL and CMOS, the fastest family is:
(A) ECL             (B) CMOS     
(C) TTL              (D) RTL
Answer: A
8.       The octal equivalent of the hexadecimal number FF is:
(A) 100               (B) 150          
(C) 377              (D) 737
Answer: C
9.       The characteristic equation of a T flip flop is given by:
(A) QN+1=TQN                (B) QN+1=T+QN
(C) QN+1=TQN           (D) QN+1=T’+QN
Answer: C
10.    The idempotent law in Boolean algebra says that:
(A) ~(~x)=x        (B) x+x=x
(C) x+xy=x         (D) x(x+y)=x
Answer: B
11.    What is the effect of the following C code?
for(int i=1; i≤5; i=i+½)
printf(“%d,”,i);
(A) It prints 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5, 4, 4.5, 5, and stops
(B) It prints 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and stops
(C) It prints 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and repeats forever
(D) It prints 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, and repeats forever
Answer: D

12.    Consider the following declaration in C:
char a[];
char *p;
Which of the following statement is not a valid statement?
(A) p=a;              (B) p=a+2;
(C) a=p;             (D) p=&a[2];
Answer: C
13.    Consider the following C code:
{ int a=5, b=9;
float r;
r=b/a; }
What is the value of r ?
(A) 1.8    (B) 1.0           
(C) 2.0    (D) 0.0
Answer: B
14.    Function overloading is a concept in which:
(A) a function is used to implement lots of tasks at the same time.
(B) a function is called too many number of times by another function.
(C) a function provides common interface to the user to carry out possibly different functions in each call.
(D) a function is computationally too expensive for the system to handle.
Answer: C
15.    Which of the following is true?
(A) A “static” member of a class cannot be inherited by its derived class.
(B) A “static” member of a class can be initialized only within the class it is a member of.
(C) A “static” member of a class can be initialized before an object of that class is created.
(D) Since “static” member of a class is actually a global element, it does not require a class/object qualifier to access it independently of class/object.
Answer: C
16.    A superkey for an entity consists of:
(A) one attribute only             
(B) at least two attributes
(C) at most two attributes       
(D) one or more attributes
Answer: D
17.    Which of the following set of keywords constitutes a mapping in SQL?
(A) SELECT, FROM, TABLE            
(B) SELECT, FROM, WHERE
(C) CONNECT, TABLE, CREATE   
(D) SELECT, TABLE, INSERT
Answer: B
18.    If a relation is in 2NF then:
(A) every candidate key is a primary key
(B) every non-prime attribute is fully functionally dependent on each relation key
(C) every attribute is functionally independent
(D) every relational key is a primary key
Answer: B
19.    Which of the following is true?
(A) A relation in 3NF is always in BCNF
(B) A relation in BCNF is always in 3NF
(C) BCNF and 3NF are totally different
(D) A relation in BCNF is in 2NF but not in 3NF
Answer: B
20.    Consider the query : SELECT student_name FROM student_data WHERE rollno (SELECT rollno FROM student_marks WHERE SEM1_MARK=SEM2_MARK);
Which of the following is true ?
(A) It gives the name of the student whose marks in semester 1 and semester 2 are same.
(B) It gives all the names and roll nos  of those students whose marks in semester 1 and semester 2 are same.
(C) It gives the names of all the students whose marks in semester 1 and semester 2 are same.
(D) It gives roll numbers of all students whose marks in semester 1 and semester 2 are same.
Answer: C
21.    Which of the following data structures is most efficient in terms of both space and time to reverse a string of characters?
(A) Linked list               (B) Stack
(C) Array                        (D) Tree
Answer: B
22.    Which of the following can be the sequence of nodes examined in a binary search tree while searching for key 98?
(A) 100, 50, 75, 60, 98
(B) 100, 120, 90, 95, 98
(C) 200, 70, 100, 95, 98         
(D) 75, 150, 90, 80, 98
Answer: C
23.    Which of the following is true for a sorted list with ‘n’ elements?
(A) Insertion in a sorted array takes constant time.
(B) Insertion in a sorted linear linked list takes constant time.
(C) Searching for a key in a sorted array can be done in O(log n) time.
(D) Searching for a key in a sorted linear linked list can be done in O(log n) time.
Answer: C
24.    Files that are related to input/output and are used to model serial I/O devices such as terminals, printers and networks are called :
(A) regular files                        (B) character special files
(C) directories               (D) block special files
Answer: D
25.    An example of a possible file attribute is:
(A) minimum size        (B) permanent flag
(C) archive flag                        (D) EBCDIC flag
Answer: C
26.    The ATM cells are ................ bytes long.
(A) 48     (B) 53             (C) 64             (D) 69
Answer: B
27.    For slotted ALOHA, the maximum channel utilization is :
(A) 100%           (B) 50%         
(C) 36%             (D) 18%
Answer: C
28.    For a channel of 3 KHz bandwidth and signal to noise ratio of 30 dB, the maximum data rate is:
(A) 3000 bps                 (B) 6000 bps
(C) 15000 bps              (D) 30000 bps
Answer: D
29.    An example of a public key encryption algorithm is:
(A) Caesar cipher algorithm 
(B) DES algorithm
(C) AES algorithm                  
(D) Knapsack algorithm
Answer: D
30.    With reference to hierarchical routing, the optimum number of levels for an m router subnet is:
(A) m2                (B) m             
(C) ln m             (D) √m
Answer: C

31.       Assembler program is:
(A) dependent on the operating system
(B) dependent on the compiler
(C) dependent on the hardware
(D) independent of the hardware
Answer: C
32.       In the indirect addressing scheme, the second part of an instruction contains:
(A) the operand in decimal form
(B) the address of the location where the value of the operand is stored
(C) the address of the location where the address of the operand is stored
(D) the operand in an encoded form
Answer: C
33.       At the end of parsing,
(A) tokens are identified.
(B) set of instructions are identified.
(C) the syntactic groups are identified.
(D) machine instructions are identified.
Answer: A
34.       Dead-code elimination in machine code optimization refers to:
(A) removal of all labels.
(B) removal of values that never get used.
(C) removal of function which are not involved.
(D) removal of a module after its use.
Answer: B
35.       A parse tree is an annotated parse tree if:
(A) it shows attribute values at each node.
(B) there are no inherited attributes.
(C) it has synthesized nodes as terminal nodes.
(D) every non-terminal nodes is an inherited attribute.
Answer: A
36.       An example of a non-preemptive CPU scheduling algorithm is:
(A) Shortest job first scheduling.     
(B) Round robin scheduling.
(C) Priority scheduling.                     
(D) Fair share scheduling.
Answer: A
37.       There are ‘n’ processes in memory. A process spends a fraction ‘p’ of its time waiting for I/O to complete. The CPU utilization is given by:
(A) pn                   (B) 1-pn          
(C) (1-p)n               (D) 1-np
Answer: B
38.       An example of a memory management system call in UNIX is:
(A) fork.              (B) mmap.
(C) sigaction.    (D)execve.
Answer: B
39.       With 64 bit virtual addresses, a 4KB page and 256 MB of RAM, an inverted page table requires:
(A) 8192 entries.          (B) 16384 entries.
(C) 32768 entries.        (D) 65536 entries.
Answer: D
40.    A computer has 6 tape drives with ‘n’ processes competing for them. Each process may need two drives. For which values of ‘n’ is the system deadlock free ?
(A) 1       (B) 2    (C) 3   (D) 6
Answer: C
41.    Water fall model for software development is:
(A) a top down approach.      
(B) a bottom up approach.
(C) a sequential approach.   
(D) a consequential approach.
Answer: C
42.    In software development, value adjustment factors include the following among others:
(A) the criticality of the performance and reusability of the code.
(B) number of lines of code in the software.
(C) number of technical manpower and hardware costs.
(D) time period available and the level of user friendliness.
Answer: A
43.    While designing the user interface, one should:
(A) use as many short cuts as possible.
(B) use as many defaults as possible.
(C) use as many visual layouts as possible.
(D) reduce the demand on short-term memory.
Answer: D
44.    In software cost estimation, base estimation is related to:
(A) cost of similar projects already completed.
(B) cost of the base model of the present project.
(C) cost of the project with the base minimum profit.
(D) cost of the project under ideal situations.
Answer: A
45.    In clean room software engineering:
(A) only eco-friendly hardware is used.
(B) only hired facilities are used for development.
(C) correctness of the code is verified before testing.
(D) implementation is done only after ensuring correctness.
Answer: D
46.    Amdahl’s law states that the maximum speedup S achievable by a parallel computer with ‘p’ processors is given by:
(A) S≤f+(1-f)/p              (B) S≤f/p+(1-f)
(C) S≤1/[f+(1-f)/p]         (D) S≤1/[1-f+f/p]
Answer: D
47.    With reference to cluster analysis in data mining, a distance measure that is NOT used is:
(A) Euclidean distance.          (B) Manhattan distance.
(C) Chebychev’s distance.    (D) Lee distance.
Answer: D
48.    In a mobile communication system, a geographic region is divided into cells. For each frequency set, there is a buffer ............... wide where that frequency is not used.
(A) one-cell       (B) two-cells
(C) three-cells  (D) four-cells
Answer: B
49.    Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) The overall strategy drives the e-commerce data warehousing strategy.
(B) Data warehousing in an e-commerce environment should be done in a classical manner.
(C) E-commerce opens up an entirely new world of web servers.
(D) E-commerce security threats can be grouped into three major categories.
Answer: D
50.    Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) The ATM adaptation layer is not service dependent.
(B) Logical connections in ATM are referred to as virtual channel connections.
(C) ATM is a streamlined protocol with minimal error and flow control capabilities.
(D) ATM is also known as cell relay.
Answer: A

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper II - December 2008

1.       The channel capacity of a band-limited Gaussian channel is given by:
(A) B log2(2+S/N)         (B) B log2(1+S/N)
(C) B log10(1+S/N)       (D) B loge(1+S/N)
Answer: B
2.       The graph K3,4 has:
(A) 3 edges       (B) 4 edges
(C) 7 edges       (D) 12 edges
Answer: D
3.       The total number of spanning trees that can be drawn using five labeled vertices is:
(A) 125               (B) 64
(C) 36                 (D) 16
Answer: A
4.       Extremely low power dissipation and low cost per gate can be achieved in:
(A) MOS ICs     (B) C MOS ICs
(C) TTL ICs       (D) ECL ICs
Answer: B
5.       An example of a universal building block is:
(A) EX-OR gate            (B) AND gate
(C) OR gate                  (D) NOR gate
Answer: D
6.       An example of a layer that is absent in broadcast networks is:
(A) Physical layer        (B) Presentation layer
(C) Network layer         (D) Application layer
Answer: C
7.       The ATM cell is:
(A) 48 bytes long         (B) 53 bytes long
(C) 64 bytes long         (D) 69 bytes long
Answer: B
8.       Four jobs J1, J2, J3 and J4 are waiting to be run. Their expected run times are 9, 6, 3 and 5 respectively. In order to minimize average response time, the jobs should be run in the order:
(A) J1 J2 J3 J4                (B) J4 J3 J2 J1
(C) J3 J4 J1 J2                (D) J3 J4 J2 J1
Answer: D
9.       Suppose it takes 100 ns to access page table and 20 ns to access associative memory. If the average access time is 28 ns, the corresponding hit rate is:
(A) 100 percent                        (B) 90 percent
(C) 80 percent              (D) 70 percent
Answer: B
10.    Transmission of N signals, each band limited to fm Hz by TDM, requires a minimum band-width of:
(A) fm                  (B) 2 fm              
(C) N fm              (D) 2N fm
Answer: C
11.    If a code is ‘t’ error detecting, the minimum hamming distance should be equal to:
(A) t-1                 (B) t    
(C) t+1                (D) 2t+1
Answer: C
12.    A relation R in {1,2,3,4,5,6} is given by {(1,2),(2,3),(3,4),(4,4),(4,5)}. This relation is:
(A) reflexive     
(B) symmetric
(C) transitive    
(D) not reflexive, not symmetric and not transitive
Answer: D
13.    The dual of the switching function x+yz is:
(A) x+yz             (B) x’+y’z’
(C) x(y+z)          (D) x’(y’+z’)
Answer: D
14.    The characteristic equation of D flip-flop is:
(A) Q=1              (B) Q=0         
(C) Q=D’            (D) Q=D
Answer: D
15.    If 4 input multiplexers drive a 4 input multiplexer, we get a:
(A) 16 input MUX         (B) 8 input MUX
(C) 4 input MUX           (D) 2 input MUX
Answer: A
16.    The throughput of slotted ALOHA is given by:
(A) S=G             (B) S=GeG
(C) S=Ge-G        (D) S=eG
Answer: C
17.    Congestion control is done by:
(A) Network layer                     (B) Physical layer
(C) Presentation layer                        (D) Application layer
Answer: A
18.    Assertion (A): Twisted pairs are widely used as transmission medium.
Reasoning (R): Twisted pairs have adequate performance and low cost.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: A
19.    An example of a non-adaptive routing algorithm is:
(A) Shortest path routing                   
(B) Centralised routing
(C) Baran’s hot potato routing          
(D) Baran’s backward learning algorithm
Answer: A
20.    IP address in B class is given by:
(A) 125.123.123.2        (B) 191.023.21.54
(C) 192.128.32.56        (D) 10.14.12.34
Answer: B

21.       N processes are waiting for I/O. A process spends a fraction p of its time in I/O wait state. The CPU utilization is given by:
(A) 1-p-N             (B) 1-pN             
(C) pN                 (D) p-N
Answer: B
22.       If holes are half as large as processes, the fraction of memory wasted in holes is:
(A) 2/3                (B) 1/2           
(C) 1/3                (D) 1/5
Answer: D
23.       An example of a non pre-emptive scheduling algorithm is:
(A) Round Robin        
(B) Priority Scheduling
(C) Shortest job first   
(D) 2 level scheduling
Answer: C
24.       An example of distributed OS is:
(A) Amoeba      (B) UNIX
(C) MS-DOS     (D) MULTICS
Answer: A
25.       Which one of the following describes correctly a static variable?
(A) It cannot be initialized
(B) It is initialized once at the commencement of execution and cannot be changed at run time
(C) It retains its value during the life of the program
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
26.       The output of the program code
main()
{
int x=0;
while (x<=10)
for(;;)
if(++x%10==0)
break;
printf(“x=%d”,x);
}
is :
(A) x=1               (B) compilation error
(C) x=20                        (D) none of the above
Answer: C
27.       A copy constructor is invoked when:
(A) a function returns by value        
(B) an argument is passed by value
(C) a function returns by reference 
(D) none of the above
Answer: B
28.       When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it is said to be:
(A) extensible               (B) encapsulated
(C) overloaded             (D) none of the above
Answer: A
29.       How many constructors can a class have?
(A) zero              (B) 1
(C) 2                   (D) any number
Answer: D
30.    An entity has:
(i) a set of properties
(ii) a set of properties and values for all the properties
(iii) a set of properties and the values for some set of properties may non-uniquely identify an entity
(iv) a set of properties and the values for some set of properties may uniquely identify an entity
Which of the above are valid?
(A) (i) only         (B) (ii) only    
(C) (iii) only       (D) (iv) only
Answer: D
31.    Aggregation is:
(A) an abstraction through which relationships are treated as lower level entities
(B) an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities
(C) an abstraction through which relationships are not treated at all as entities
(D) none of the above
Answer: B
32.    Suppose R is a relation schema and F is a set of functional dependencies on R. Further, suppose R1and R2 form a decomposition of R. Then the decomposition is a lossless join decomposition of R provided that:
(A) R1∩R2→R1 is in F+
(B) R1∩R2→R2 is in F+
(C) both R1∩R2→R1 and R1∩R2→R2 functional dependencies are in F+
(D) at least one from R1∩R2→R1 and R1∩R2→R2 is in F+
Answer: D
33.    In a heap, every element is …………… of all the elements in the subtree.
(A) maximum                (B) minimum
(C) sum                         (D) product
Answer: A
34.    If (rear==maxsize-1) rear=0; else rear=rear+1; is required in:
(A) circular queue       (B) linear queue
(C) stack                        (D) deque
Answer: D
35.    A high performance switching and multiplexing technology that utilizes fixed length packets to carry different types of traffic is:
(A) ATM             (B) ADSL
(C) SONET       (D) None of the above
Answer: A
36.    A conventional LAN bridge specifies only the functions of OSI:
(A) layers 1 and 2        (B) layers 1 through 3
(C) all layers                 (D) none of the above
Answer: A
37.    An assembly program contains:
(A) imperative and declarative statements
(B) imperative and assembler directives
(C) imperative and declarative statements as well as assembler directives
(D) declarative statements and assembler directives
Answer: C
38.    In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated by adding a constant value to the contents of register?
(A) absolute mode       (B) immediate mode
(C) indirect mode         (D) index mode
Answer: D
39.    Which of the following are Assembler Directives?
(i) EQU  (ii) ORIGIN     (iii) START     (iv) END
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)      
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)                        
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
40.    Which of the following OS treats hardware as a file system?
(A) UNIX                        (B) DOS
(C) Windows NT          (D) None of the above
Answer: A
41.    In which of the following, ready to execute processes must be present in RAM?
(A) multiprocessing     (B) multiprogramming
(C) multitasking           (D) all of the above
Answer: D
42.    If the executing program size is greater than the existing RAM of a computer, it is still possible to execute the program if the OS supports:
(A) multitasking                        (B) virtual memory
(C) paging system       (D) none of the above
Answer: B
43.    Software Quality Assurance(SQA) encompasses:
(A) verification                                     
(B) validation
(C) both verification and validation 
(D) none of the above
Answer: C
44.    Which level is called as “defined” in capability maturity model?
(A) level 0          (B) level 3
(C) level 4         (D) level 1
Answer: B
45.    COCOMO model is used for:
(A) product quality estimation          
(B) product complexity estimation
(C) product cost estimation               
(D) all of the above
Answer: C
46.    Font sizes are usually expressed in points. One point is:
(A) 0.0069 inch                        (B) 0.0138 inch
(C) 0.0207 inch                        (D) 0.0276 inch
Answer: B
47.    Assertion (A): Cellular telephone systems can handle a multitude of users.
Reasoning (R): Cellular telephone systems permit extensive frequency reuse in a small local area.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: A
48.    E-commerce involves:
(A) Electronic Data Interchange      
(B) Electronic mail
(C) Electronic Bulletin Boards         
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
49.    An example of a data mining algorithm which uses squared error score function is:
(A) CART algorithm                
(B) back propagation algorithm
(C) a priority algorithm                       
(D) vector space algorithm
Answer: B
50.    (I) Each object in the active directory of windows 2000 has an access control list.
(II) The scheme is a blueprint of all objects in the domain of windows 2000.
Which of the following is true?
(A) only (I)                    
(B) only (II)
(C) both (I) and (II)      
(D) none of the above
Answer: C

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