UGC NET STUDY MATERIALS

SOFTWARE ENGNEERING-II

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: BC0049
Subject Name: Software Engineering
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)
1. _____ is a set of application programs.
A) Software
B) Hardware
C) Algorithm
D) Pseudo code
2. Software delivers the most important product of our time i.e. _____.
A) Money
B) Information
C) Knowledge
D) Wealth
3. _____ resides only in read-only memory and is used to control products and systems for the
consumer and industrial markets.
A) System software
B) Real time software




C) Embedded software
D) Business software
4. _____ is an example for common PC software.
A) Embedded software
B) Real time software
C) AI software
D) Word processing
5. Software Engineering is a sub discipline of _____.
A) Computer science engineering
B) Electronics engineering
C) Mechanical engineering
D) Civil engineering
6. The cost of software engineering includes roughly _____ % of development costs and _____
% of testing costs.
A) 50, 50
B) 60, 40
C) 40, 60
D) 70, 30
7. _____ model combines the techniques of both prototyping and the waterfall model.
A) Spiral Development
B) Incremental Development
C) Iterative Development




D) Linear Sequential Development
8. _____ model combines the techniques of linear sequential model with the iterative of
prototyping.
A) Concurrent Development
B) Waterfall Development
C) Spiral Development
D) Incremental Development
9. The _____ of a software system is a measure of how well users think it provides the services
that they require.
A) Reliability
B) Fault tolerance
C) Fault avoidance
D) Fault detection
10. _____ is a measure of the likelihood that the system will fail when a service request is
made.
A) Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
B) Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD)
C) Mean Time to Failure (MTTF)
D) Availability (AVAIL)
11. _____ is a software testing process in which the objective is to measure the reliability of the
software rather than to discover software faults.
A) Unit testing
B) System testing




C) Statistical testing
D) Integration testing
12. A good software process should be oriented towards _____ rather than fault detection and
removal.
A) Fault tolerance
B) Fault avoidance
C) Reliability
D) None of the above
13. In _____ model data flow diagrams may be used to show how data is processed at different
stages in the system.
A) Data Processing
B) Composition
C) Classification
D) Process
14. In _____ model entity-relation diagrams may be used to show how some entities in the
system are composed of other entities.
A) Classification
B) Composition
C) Stimulus-response
D) Process
15. In _____ model the system is modeled using the data transformations, which take place as
it is processed.
A) Data Flow




B) Entity Relation
C) Structural
D) Object Oriented
16. In _____ model the system components and their interactions are documented.
A) Data Flow
B) Entity Relation
C) Structural
D) Object Oriented
17. _____ is concerned with developing an object-oriented model of the application domain.
A) Functional programming
B) Object oriented design
C) Object oriented programming
D) Object oriented analysis
18. _____ is concerned with developing an object-oriented model of a software system to
implement the identified requirements.
A) Object oriented programming
B) Procedural programming
C) Object oriented design
D) Object oriented analysis
19. The service name may be _____.
A) Operation name
B) Attribute name




C) A or B
D) None of the above
20. Designers should avoid _____ representation information in their interface design.
A) Interfaces
B) Classes
C) Objects
D) Attributes
21. _____ is the process, which controls the changes made to a system and manages the
different versions of the evolving software product. (1 mark)
A) Configuration Management
B) Software Maintenance
C) Software Re-engineering
D) Software Refactoring
22. The process of changing a system after it has been delivered and is in use is called _____.
A) Configuration Management
B) Software Maintenance
C) Software Re-engineering
D) Software Refactoring
23. Change Management processes involve _____.
A) Change Analysis
B) Cost Benefit Analysis
C) Change Tracking




D) All of the above
24. A system release is a version that is distributed to _____.
A) Customers
B) Software Engineers
C) Software Developers
D) Project Managers
25. The Pareto principle implies that _____ percent of all errors uncovered during testing will
likely be traceable to _____ percent of all program components.
A) 80, 20
B) 50, 50
C) 20, 80
D) 60, 40
26. Testing should begin “_____” and progress toward testing “_____”.
A) In the large, in the small
B) In the small, in the large
C) In the medium, in the medium
D) None of the above
27. _____ is a black-box testing method that divides the input domain of a program into classes
of data from which test cases can be derived.
A) System testing
B) Structural testing
C) Equivalence partitioning




D) Unit testing
28. _____ leads to a selection of test cases at the edges of the class.
A) System testing
B) Black-box testing
C) White-box testing
D) Boundary Value Analysis
29. _____ refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific
function. (1 mark)
A) Verification
B) Validation
C) Testing
D) Maintenance
30. _____ refers to a set of activities that ensure that the software that has been built is
traceable to customer requirements.
A) Testing
B) Validation
C) Maintenance
D) Verification
31. _____ is an event-based approach, where tests are based on the events, which trigger
system actions.
A) Bottom-up testing
B) Stress testing




C) Thread testing
D) Top-down testing
32. _____ continues the tests beyond the maximum design load of the system until the system
fails.
A) Thread testing
B) Top-down testing
C) Stress testing
D) Black-box testing
33. _____ is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
A) Maintenance
B) Validation
C) Verification
D) Testing
34. Testing begins at _____ level.
A) System
B) Component
C) Module
D) None of the above
35. _____ must be accommodated in any testing strategy.
A) Analysis
B) Coding
C) Debugging




D) Maintenance
36. The software engineering process may be viewed as the _____ model.
A) Relational
B) Incremental
C) Bottom-up
D) Spiral
37. Business schools have been using case studies for years to develop a student’s _____
abilities.
A) Analytical
B) Logical
C) Arithmetical
D) Soft skill
38. For any organization, _____ will be the top most priority.
A) Growth
B) System availability
C) Backup
D) Recovery
39. The important data for any organization is _____.
A) HR records
B) Employee details
C) Customer’s transactions
D) Maintenance files




40. In order to protect the competitors from hacking into the highly sensitive information of an
organization _____ should be used.
A) Database software
B) Network software
C) OS software
D) Security software
Part B (Two mark questions)
41. The role of computer software has undergone significant change over a time span of little
more than _____ years.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
42. Software is a _____ element.
A) Physical
B) Static
C) Dynamic
D) Logical
43. Software Engineering is the systematic approach to the development, operation,
maintenance and retirement of software. This definition is given by _____.
A) IEEE




B) Boehm
C) Bauer
D) Charles Babbage
44. _____ model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model.
A) Iterative Development
B) Incremental Development
C) Spiral Development
D) Linear Sequential Development
45. _____ is a measure of the frequency of occurrence with which unexpected behavior is likely
to occur.
A) Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD)
B) Availability (AVAIL)
C) Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
D) Mean Time to Failure (MTTF)
46. _____ is a measure of the time between observed system failures.
A) Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD)
B) Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
C) Availability
D) Mean Time to Failure (MTTF)
47. In _____ model objects class/inheritance diagrams may be used to show how entities have
common characteristics.
A) Composition




B) Classification
C) Process
D) Data Processing
48. _____ is a list of names used by the systems, arranged alphabetically.
A) Data Dictionary
B) Hardware list
C) Data Directory
D) Software list
49. _____ is concerned with realizing a software design using an object oriented programming
language.
A) Object oriented design
B) Structural programming
C) Object oriented programming
D) Object oriented analysis
50. A/An _____ is an entity that has a state and a defined set of operations, which operate on
that state.
A) Class
B) Message
C) Interface
D) Object
51. _____ is concerned with taking existing legacy systems and re-implementing them to make
it more maintainable. (2 marks)




A) Configuration Management
B) Software Maintenance
C) Software Re-engineering
D) Software Refactoring
52. _____ is the process of factoring the design module.
A) Configuration Management
B) Software Maintenance
C) Software Re-engineering
D) Software Refactoring
53. Testing time and resources are _____.
A) Limited
B) Unlimited
C) Abundant
D) None of the above
54. White-Box testing, sometimes called _____ testing.
A) Plastic-box testing
B) Iron-box testing
C) Metal-box testing
D) Glass-box testing
55. _____ does provide the last bastion from which quality can be assessed and, more
pragmatically, errors can be uncovered.
A) Analysis




B) Coding
C) Testing
D) Maintenance
56. _____ testing tests the high levels of a system before testing its detailed components.
A) White-box
B) Top-down
C) Black-box
D) Bottom-up
57. In the spiral model of software engineering process, _____ testing begins at the vortex of
the spiral.
A) Unit
B) System
C) Integration
D) White-box
58. Testing within the context of software engineering is a series of _____ steps that are
implemented sequentially.
A) Two
B) Four
C) Three
D) Five
59. _____ is a most popularly used relational database system.
A) Oracle




B) Access
C) Excel
D) Power Point
60. Clients communicate with the databases through _____.
A) C
B) Structured Query Language (SQL).
C) C++
D) Java
Part C (Four mark questions)
61. _____ is a collection of programs written to service other programs.
A) System software
B) Real time software
C) Business software
D) Embedded software
62. Rapid Application Development (RAD) assumes the use of _____ generation techniques.
A) first
B) fourth
C) second
D) third




63. The specifications, called _____ govern how the component is to interact with other
components and systems.
A) Bonds
B) Agreements
C) Contracts
D) Requirements
64. In _____ design, the sub-systems making up the system and their relationships are
identified and documented.
A) Component
B) Abstract
C) Interface
D) Architectural
65. Objects are organized into a/an _____ structure that shows how one object is composed of
a number of other objects.
A) Aggregation
B) Hierarchy
C) Inheritance
D) None of the above
66. _____ is the process of analyzing a program in an effort to create a representation of the
program at a higher level of obstruction than source code.
A) Reverse Engineering
B) Forward Engineering
C) Document Restructuring




D) Inventory Analysis
67. Black-box testing, also called _____.
A) System testing
B) Structural testing
C) Behavioral testing
D) Unit testing
68. _____ involves testing the modules at the lower levels in the hierarchy, and then working up
the hierarchy of modules until the final module is tested.
A) Bottom-up testing
B) Black-box testing
C) Top-down testing
D) White-box testing
69. Modules are integrated by moving _____ through the control hierarchy, beginning with the
main control module.
A) Downward
B) Upward
C) Sideward
D) None of the above
70. _____ testing begins construction and testing with atomic modules.
A) Top-down integration
B) Bottom-up integration
C) Sideward integration




D) None of the above
71. In any organization, central databases will be available in _____.
A) Corporate office
B) Regional offices
C) Local offices
D) None of the above
72 _____ is an example for messaging and queuing software.
A) Sybase
B) MQ Series
C) Informix
D) DB2
73. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. System software a. Resides in read only memory
2. Real time software b. MIS
3. Business software c. Controls real world events
4. Embedded software d. Service other programs
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b




74. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Linear Sequential Model a. Parallel development
2. Iterative Development Model b. Step-by-step development
3. Incremental Development Model c. Complete specification is not necessary
4. Concurrent Development Model d. Waterfall model
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
75. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. POFOD a. Measure of the availability of the system
2. ROCOF b. Measure of the time between system failures
3. MTTF c. Measure of the frequency of failure occurrence
4. AVAIL d. Measure of the likelihood that the system will fail
A) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b




Answer Keys
Part - A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 A 21 A 41 C 61 A
2 B 22 B 42 D 62 B
3 C 23 D 43 A 63 C
4 D 24 A 44 D 64 D
5 A 25 A 45 C 65 A
6 B 26 B 46 D 66 A
7 C 27 C 47 B 67 C
8 D 28 D 48 A 68 A
9 A 29 A 49 C 69 A
10 B 30 B 50 D 70 B
11 C 31 C 51 C 71 A
12 B 32 C 52 D 72 B
13 A 33 D 53 A 73 A
14 B 34 B 54 D 74 B
15 A 35 C 55 C 75 C
16 C 36 D 56 B
17 D 37 A 57 A
18 C 38 B 58 B
19 C 39 C 59 A
20 A 40 D 60 B

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: BC0051
Subject Name: System Software
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)



1. ________ is a program that converts one programming to another programming in other
language.
A) Language builder
B) Language translator
C) Language processor
D) Language Activity
2. ______ will govern the formation of valid statements in the source language.
A) Lexical rules:
B) Syntax rules:
C) Semantic rules
D) Source rules
3._________is the gap between the semantics of programs written in different programming
languages
A) Specification gap
B) Implementation gap
C) Execution gap
D) Design gap
4. Which of the following step does not belong to interpretation cycle.
A) Fetch the statement.
B) Translate the statement




C) Analyze the statement and determine its meaning,
D) Execute the meaning of the statement.
5. ________ is a program which accepts assembly language program as input and produces
its equivalent machine language program as output.
A) Data base
B) Assembler
C) Assembly
D) Directives
6. How many kinds of statements are there in assembly program?
A) 4
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
7. An assembly language statement has the following format
A) [,..] [Label]
B) [,..] [Label]
C) [Label] [,..]
D) [Label] [,..]
8. Which of the following is a not a assembly Program statement
A. imperative
B. Declaration
C. assembler Directive
D) Data structure




9. ________ is a translator which translates the program written in a high level language
object language, which is a low level language.
A) Interpreter
B) Assembler
C) Analyzer
D) Compiler
10. YACC, abbreviated from "Yet Another Compiler Compiler", is a __________ system tool
program for generating C or C++ code for a parser.
A) Linux
B) Unix
C) Windows
D) DOS
11. Choose the WRONG statement
A) Fortran is a high level language
B) Machine language program is a sequence of 1s and 0s
C) Programming in Machine language is simpler than high Level language
D) High level programming language makes the programming task simple
12. Choose the WRONG statement
A) An interpreter produces a result from a program, while a compiler produces a program
Written in assembly language.
B) A compiled program is not human readable.
C) Assembly language is independent of architecture.
D) Compiled programs can only run on computers that have the same architecture as the
Computer on which they were compiled.




13. ________ is a unit of specification for program generation through expansion.
A) Interpreter
B) Macro
C) Source code
D) Compiler
14. During __________ the macro statement is replaced by sequence of assembly statements.
A) Expansion
B) Macro expansion
C) Parameter passing
D) Execution
15.__________ is the Lowest-level of Preprocessors
A) Lexical Preprocessors
B) Analytical Preprocessors
C) Semantic Preprocessors
D) None of the above
16. Which of the following is NOT a intelx86 register
A) SI
B) DI
C) BP
D) DP
17. _______ is used to combine multiple functions into a single executable module
A) Static linking
B) Library




C) Relocating
D) Loading
18. _______ is a collection of subprograms used to develop software.
A) Static linking
B) Library
C) Relocating
D) Loading
19.________ brings the object program into the memory for execution.
A) Static linking
B) Library
C) Relocating
D) Loading
20. Which of the following is not a vital step in execution of a program
A) Translation
B) Linking
C) Relocation
D) Compiling
21. _______is a computer program that transfers data from offline memory into internal
Storage
A) Debugger
B) Assembler
C) Loader
D) Compiler




22. _________is a very small program (usually residing in ROM) which reads a fixed location on
a disk and passes control over to it.
A) Absolute Loader
B) Boot strap Loader
C) Program Loader
D) Retargetable loader
23. Loader can replace virtual addresses with _______ addresses.
A) local
B) Permanent
C) Physical
D) Object
24. The object code or executable code is generated by ________.
A) Assembler
B) Compiler
C) Assembler or compiler
D) Assembler and compiler
25. In ________ memory allocation, memory is allotted to a variable before the execution of a
program begins.
A) stack
B) automatic
C) dynamic
D) static




26. Reference counting is a form of ________ memory management where each object has a
count of the number of references to it.
A) dynamic
B) automatic
C) stack
D) static
27. In dynamic memory allocation,________ are established and destroyed during the
execution of a program.
A) Memory bin
B) Stack
C) Global variable
D) Local variable
28. Call-by-value parameter variable belongs to ___________ type of memory allocation.
A) Static
B) Stack
C) Dynamic
D) Automatic
29. Symbol table is a __________ which is used by compiler to keep track of scope and binding
information about names.
A) Stack
B) Data structure
C) Pointer
D) Organization




30.The actions required for the maintenance of a symbol table are: search, enter and ______
A) Store
B) Return
C) Delete
D) List
31. Which of the following statement(s) are true?
1. Symbol table is a compile time data structure
2. Convenient data structure for symbol tables is a hash table.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) None of the above.
32. Fixed entry elementary symbol table organization contains symbol and ________.
A) Length
B) Symbol
C) Associated information
D) Tree
33. What is error handling?
A) It is the process of identifying errors in the program
B) it is the process of recovering from errors.
C) It is the process of identifying error and also to recover from them.
D) None of the above




34. Which of the following is NOT a property of good error diagnostics?
A. The messages should pinpoint the errors in terms of the original source program.
B. The error messages should be tasteful and understandable by the user .
C. The messages should be specific and should localize the problem
D. The messages should be redundant.
35. Which of the following is a true statement with respect to Dynamic error?
1. Dynamic error are detected at run time
2. Dynamic errors can be detected in all languages
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) None of them
36. Which of the following is a true statement with respect to Semantic errors?
1. Semantic errors can be detected both at compile time and run time
2. Declaration and scope are common examples for semantic errors
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) None of them
37. Which of the following is a Function/s of operating system?
A) Provides basic computing resourses (CPU, Memory, I/O devices).
B) Controls and coordinates the use of the hardware.
C) Define the ways in which the system resources are used to solve the computing problems
D) All the above




38. Which of the following is NOT a member of UNIX family?
A. Linux
B. Solaris
C. Irix
D. MacOS
39. Which of the following is a NOT a Function/s of operating system?
A) OS Contains interrupt service routines
B) OS deals with Process Management
C) OS helps in exchanging information between Processes
D) OS alone is responsible for compiling and executing C Program
40. Which of the following Statement is TRUE with respect to Multi threading?
A) An operating system that allow different parts of a software program to run
Concurrently.
B) An operating system that is capable of allowing multiple software processes to run at
Same time
C) An operating allows multiple users to use same computer at the same time or different
Time.
D) None of the above
Part B (Two mark questions)
41. Program translation model bridges the execution gap by translating a program written in a
PL, called _______ into an equivalent program in the machine or assembly language of the
computer system, called ______
A) Source program (SP), target program (TP).
B) Syntax program, Analysis program
C) Source program (SP), Syntax program,
D) Analysis program, target program (TP).




42. Two fundamental language processing activities are _______and______
A) Program Processor Activities, Program Execution Activities
B) Program Generation Activities, Program Source Activities
C) Program Processor Activities, Program Source Activities
D) Program Generation Activities, Program Execution Activities
43._______ and ________are the two tasks performed by assembler.
A) Generate instructions, Process pseudo-operations
B) Define symbols, Generate object
C) Process pseudo-operations, Define symbols
D) Generate object, Generate instructions
44. Which of the following statement is NOT a purpose of pass-1 for assembler?
A) Determine length of machine instructions
B) Generate Instructions
C) Remember values of symbols until pass 2
D) Process some pseudo-operation
45._______ and ________are the two types of optimization
A) Local Optimization, Loop Optimization
B) Quick Optimization, Loop Optimization
C) Local Optimization, symbolic Optimization
D) Quick Optimization, symbolic Optimization
46. Which of the following statement is NOT a phase in compilation?
1. Lexical analysis
2. Syntax analysis
3. intermediate code generation
4. identifier
5. code optimization
6. logical builder




7. code generation
A) 1,2
B) 4,6
C) 3,5
D) 2,7
47. If macros are calling themselves, they are called as _______
A) nested macro calls
B) recursive macro calls
C) nesting
D) macro expansion
48. Which of the following statement does NOT holds good for Macros?
1. Macros simplify coding
2. Macros reduce the amount of repetitive coding
3. Macros reduce errors caused by repetitive coding
4. Macros can have only two parameters
5. Macros cannot be used in C++ programming language
6. Macros make an assembly program more readable.
A) 1,2
B) 3,6
C) 4,5
D) 2,7
49. State true or false
1. A static library is a collection of object files which contain library routines and data.
2. A shared library is a shared object file that contains functions and data.
A) 1-F, 2-T
B) 1-T, 2-F
C) 1-T, 2-T




D) 1-F, 2-F
50. In dynamic linking the subroutines of a library are loaded into an application program at
_____ rather than being linked in at ______ and remain as separate files on disk.
A) runtime, compile time
B) compile time, runtime
C) compile time, executing time
D) executing time, compile time
51. In computer science, relocation is the process of replacing symbolic references or names
of _______ with actual usable addresses in ________ before running a program.
A) Memory, libraries,
B) Loader, memory
C) Memory, Loader
D) Libraries, memory
52. State true or false.
1. In addition to copying a program into main memory, the loader can also replace virtual
addresses with physical addresses.
2. A binary object file is either an executable file that runs on a particular machine or a file
containing object code that needs to be linked
A) 1-T,2-F
B) 1-T,2-T
C) 1-F,2-F
D) 1-F,2-F
53. Two types of Dynamic memory allocation are ________ and _________
A) Process control allocation, Stack allocation




B) Automatic allocation, process controlled allocation
C) Automatic allocation, program controlled allocation
D) Stack allocation, program controlled allocation
54. State True or False
1. Dynamic memory allocation is implemented using stacks and heaps
2. Memory allocation is the procedure used to perform memory binding.
A) 1-T,2-T
B) 1-F,2-T
C) 1-T,2-F
D) 1-F,2-F
55. In Liner array of record there are two ways to represent names in the symbol table they are
__________and_________
A) Automatic Length representation, Pointer to Pointer table entry
B) Automatic Length representation, pointer to symbol table entry
C) Fixed Length representation, Pointer to Pointer table entry
D) Fixed Length representation, pointer to symbol table entry
56. State TRUE or FALSE
1. Hash tables are good in situations where you have enormous amounts of data
2. Compilers use a searching technique called as hashing, where a variant called as “Close
hashing” is considered.
A) 1-T,2-F
B) 1-F, 2-T
C) 1-T,2-T
D) 1-F,2-F




57. State TRUE or FALSE
1. The design specifications for the program may be inconsistent or faulty: is a source of
error
2. If the algorithms does not meet the design or incorrect results in error
A) 1-T, 2-T
B) 1-F, 2-T
C) 1-T, 2-F
D) 1-F, 2-F
58. State TRUE or FALSE
1. Dynamic errors can be detected only at run time.
2. A compiler can insert errors as it translates the source program into an object program
A) 1-T, 2-T
B) 1-F, 2-T
C) 1-T, 2-F
D) 1-F, 2-F
59. State TRUE or FALSE
1. RTOS is an operating System that guarantees a certain capability within a specified time
Constraint
2. Windows 3.1 is a example for RTOS
A) 1-T, 2-T
B) 1-F, 2-T
C) 1-T, 2-F
D) 1-F, 2-F




60. State TRUE or FALSE
1. Dynamic errors can be detected only at run time.
2. A compiler can insert errors as it translates the source program into an object program
A) 1-T, 2-T
B) 1-F, 2-T
C) 1-T, 2-F
D) 1-F, 2-F
Part C (Four mark questions)
61. Match the following
a) Type – 0 Grammars ---- i. , Production has the form Aß::= ß
b) Type – 1 Grammars ----- II. Productions of the form ::=ß
c) Type – 2 Grammars ---- iii. Productions of the form A::= tB | t \
d) Type – 3 Grammars ----- iv., Production is of the form A:: =
A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
62. State True or False
1. Language Processing = Analysis of Source Program + Synthesis of Target Program.
2. Lexical analysis identifies the lexical units in a source statement
3. Semantic analysis processes the string of tokens built by lexical analysis to determine the
statement class.
4. Syntax analysis of declaration statements differs from the Lexical analysis of imperative
statements.
A) 1-T, 2-T, 3-T, 4-F
B) 1-F, 2-T, 3-T, 4-F
C) 1-F, 2-T, 3-F, 4-F
D) 1-T, 2-T, 3-F, 4-T




63. Match the following
a) Mnemonic operation codes i. instruct the assembler to perform certain
actions
b) Assembly language ii. Microsoft Macro Assembler
c) Assembler directives iii. eliminates the need to memorize numeric
operation codes
d) MASM iv. Low level language,
A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
64. State True or False
1. SPARC stands for Sun Microsystems Processor Architecture
2. SPARC is not an open set of technical specifications that any person or company can
License and use to develop microprocessors.
3. SPARC was invented in the labs of Sun Microsystems Inc. based upon pioneering research
Into Reduced Instruction Set Computing (RISC) at the University of California at Berkeley.
4. SPARC is a modern, fast, pipelined architecture. Its features found in assembly languages
for the variety of computer architectures.
A) 1-T, 2-T, 3-T, 4-T
B) 1-F, 2-T, 3-F, 4-T
C) 1-F, 2-F, 3-T, 4-T
D) 1-F, 2-T, 3-T, 4-F
65. Match the following
a) Lexical analysis i.Carving source program into sequence tokens
b) Syntax analysis ii. Checks the tokens for patterns permitted




C) Code generation iii. Converts intermediate code into machine instructions
D) Code optimization iv. Improve the target program by a factor of two in
overall speed
A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
66. The JVM verifies all byte code before it is executed. This verification consists primarily of
Three types of checks. PICK the statements which belong to this check
1. Branches are always to valid locations
2. Check the execution of .class or .jar files
3. Data is always initialized and references are always type-safe
4. Check syntax analyzer to stream of simple instructions
5. Access to "private" or "package" data and methods is rigidly controlled.
6. Check for common programmer errors that often lead to data corruption.
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,5
C) 2,4,6
D) 4,5,6





67. The Flow chart represents: Design for simple macro assembler
Choose the correct statements for the flow chart
A) 1=assembler, 2=Get next line, 3= Macro expander
B) 1=compiler, 2=find macro, 3= Macro expander
C) 1=compiler, 2=Get next line, 3= go to Macro call
D) 1=assembler, 2=find macro, 3= go to Macro call
68. Match the Following
a. BX i. All major calculations take place in EAX, making it similar to a
dedicated accumulator register.
b. CX ii. This register is most useful for storing data related to the
accumulator's current calculation.





c. DX iii. Like the variable i in high-level languages, the count register is the
Universal loop counter.
d. AX iv. This register was useful as a pointer. it is completely free
for extra storage space.
A) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv
B) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i
C) a-iv,b-ii,c-i,d-iii
D) a-i,b-iii,c-ii,d-iv
69. The Diagram represents: Conversion from source program to binary program
Fill the empty space in the diagram
A) 1= Linker, 2=translator, 3= Loader
B) 1=Loader, 2=Translator, 3= Linker
C) 1=Loader, 2= Linker, 3= Translator
D) 1=Translator, 2=Linker, 3= Loader
70. State True or False
1. Bootstrapping refers to a process where a simple system activates another more
Complicated system that serves the same purpose.
2. Bootstrapping is a solution to the Chicken-and-egg problem of starting a certain system




Without the system already functioning.
3. In x86 systems the bootstrap ROM occupies the top 64K of the address space and ROM
Code then starts up the computer.
4. In compiler design a boostrap or bootstrap compiler is a compiler that is written in the target
Language.
A) 1= F, 2=F, 3=F, 4- F
B) 1= T, 2=F, 3=T, 4- T
C) 1= T, 2=F, 3=F, 4- T
D) 1= T, 2=T, 3=T, 4- T
71. State true or false
1. Compilers or assemblers typically generate the executable code with zero as Lower
most starting addresses.
2. The most fundamental functions of a loader are to bring an object program into memory
and starting its execution.
3. Traditionally, when developing a machine code manipulation tool, we need to read a
decoder for every BFF we want to manipulate
4. When a program needs to be executed, the OS first executes all relevant file information
and carries out any necessary actions before putting it into memory
A) 1=T, 2=T, 3=T 4=F
B) 1=T, 2=T, 3=F 4=F
C) 1=T, 2= F 3= T 4=F
D) 1=T, 2= F 3= F 4=F
72. State True or False
1. Fortran is an example for dynamic memory allocation
2. Java is Object oriented programming Language
3. Pascal is an example for static memory allocation
4. malloc () function is available only in c programming
A) 1-F, 2-T, 3-F, 4-F
B) 1-F, 2-T, 3-T, 4-F
C) 1-T, 2-T, 3-F, 4-F




D) 1-F, 2-T, 3-F, 4-T
73. State True or False.
1. In the variable length entry, the number of storage units used for the symbol depends on the
number of symbols in it.
2. A length fields in variable length entry is added to the entry in order to indicate how many
storage units are required by the symbol.
3. An organization using variable length entries would require more storage than fixed length
entries.
A) 1-T, 2-F, 3-F
B) 1-F, 2-F, 3-T
C) 1-T, 2-F, 3-T
D) 1-F, 2-T, 3-F
74. Find the True statements with respect to garbage collection.
1. Garbage collection (GC) is a form of automatic memory management.
2. The garbage collector or collector attempts to reclaim garbage, or memory used by
Objects that will never be accessed or mutated again by the application.
3. Garbage collection was invented by John McCarthy around 1959 to solve the problems of
manual memory management in his Lisp programming language.
4. Garbage collection is often portrayed as the opposite of manual memory management,
which requires the programmer to specify which objects to deallocate and return to the
memory system.
5. Garbage collection is an internal memory pool created at start-up that tasks use to
dynamically allocate memory as needed.
6. Garbage collector is used by tasks that require a lot of memory from the stack, such as
tasks that use wide columns.
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 1,2,3,4,5,6





75.
Fill in the blanks
A) 1-Syntatactic Corrector, 2-Symbol Table
B) 1- Symbol Table, 2- Syntatactic Corrector
C) 1-parcer analyzer, 2-Symbol Table
D) 1-Syntatactic Corrector, 2- parcer analyzer




Answer Keys
Part – A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 B 21 C 41 A 61 B
2 B 22 B 42 D 62 C
3 C 23 C 43 A 63 D
4 B 24 C 44 B 64 C
5 B 25 D 45 A 65 B
6 D 26 B 46 B 66 B
7 D 27 A 47 B 67 A
8 D 28 B 48 C 68 B
9 D 29 B 49 C 69 D
10 B 30 C 50 A 70 D
11 C 31 C 51 D 71 B
12 C 32 C 52 B 72 A
13 B 33 C 53 C 73 D
14 B 34 D 54 A 74 B
15 A 35 A 55 D 75 A
16 D 36 C 56 A
17 A 37 B 57 A
18 B 38 D 58 A
19 D 39 D 59 C
20 D 40 A 60 A

OPERATING SYSTEM WITH UNIX

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: MC0070
Subject Name: Operating systems with unix
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)



1. A sequence of instructions telling the computer what to do is called a_____________
A) program
B) language
C) translator
D) package
2. A process is _________________
A) program in main memory
B) Program in cache memory
C) program in secondary storage
D) program in execution
3. A _____________is a collection of processors that do not share memory, peripheral devices,
or a clock.
A) Computer system
B) distributed system
C) network
D) None of the above




4. PVM stands for
A) Parallel Virtual Machine
B) Parallel Virtual Message
C) Process Virtual Machine
D) Process Virtual Monitor
5. In MS-DOS, the interfaces and levels of functionality are _______________
A) not well separated.
B) well separated
C) independent
D) dependent
6. ______________approach simplifies debugging and system verification.
A) Kernel
B) Layered
C) Extended
D) Virtual machine
7. A process may create a new process by executing ___________system call.
A) init
B) fork
C) create
D) new
8. A process control block contains varies attributes required by _____________ to control a
process.
A) RAM
B) virtual memory
C) BIOS




D) Operating System
9. ______________is responsible for allocating primary memory to processes and for assisting
the programmer in loading and storing the contents of the primary memory.
A) Operating system
B) Memory manager
C) Database administrator
D) RAM
10. ______________ refers to the technology in which some space in hard disk is used as an
extension of main memory.
A) Cache memory
B) Paging
C) Virtual memory
D) Associative memory
11. ______________ selects a process from among the ready processes to execute on the
CPU.
A) CPU Scheduler
B) Loader
C) Dispatcher
D) Compiler
12. The time taken by the Dispatcher to stop one process and start another running is known as
_________________.
A) Turnaround time
B) Dispatch Latency
C) Access time
D) Response time




13. When resources have multiple instances ________ is used for deadlock Avoidance.
A) Banker’s algorithm
B) Resource Allocation Graph
C) semaphores
D) all of these
14. ______________ is a situation in which two computer programs sharing the same resource
are effectively preventing each other from accessing the resource, resulting in both programs
ceasing to function.
A) Semaphore
B) Deadlock
C) Mutual Exclusion
D) No preemption
15. _______________occurs when two or more execution flows are able to run simultaneously.
a) Deadlock
b) Concurrency
c) race condition
d) interrupt
16.______________ occurs when multiple processes or threads read and write data items so that
the final result depends on the order of execution of instructions in the multiple processes.
a) Race condition
b) Mutual exclusion
c) Exception




d) Interrupt
17. In Multics, a process could have up to 256K segments, but each segment was limited to
__________________ 64K words.
A) 64K
B) 32K
C) 1024K
D)112K
18.The problem with logical dumping is ________________
A) very costly
B) very slow
C) human errors
D) all of these
19. Because the I/O devices are not synchronized with the CPU, some information must be
exchanged between the CPU and the device to ensure that the data is received reliably. This
interaction between the CPU and an I/O device is usually referred to as ____________
A) polling
B) arbitration
C) handshaking
D) interrupting
20. ____________approach can place the data directly into the memory or take the data directly
from the memory without direct intervention from the processor.
A) DMA
B) Daisy chain arbitration




C) polling
D) none of these
21. ____________ file system allows sharing in multiple different locations grouped under one
folder.
A) Direct
B) distributed
C) sequential
D) parallel
22. Windows 2000 supports -------------- type of file system
A) NTFS
B) EFS
C) FEFS
D) EFFS
23. In___________, the requesting device or devices assert the signal bus_request.
A) Priority encoded arbitration
B) Distributed arbitration by self-selection
C) Priority arbitration
D) Daisy chain arbitration
24. SRM stands for
A) Security Resource Manager
B) Secret Resource Manager
C) Security Reference Monitor




D) Security Reference Manual
25. Initialization of I/O devices is part of the_________.
A) CPU
B) MSDOS
C) UNIX kernel
D) None of the above
26. BSD stands for_____________________
A) Basic Software Division
B) Berkeley Software Distribution
C) British Software Distribution
D) Berkeley Software data
27. Fsck conducts a check in _____ phases
A) One
B) Two
C) Five
D) Eight
28. Bootstrapping is also known as ______
A) cold-hot boot
B) hot boot
C) hot strap
D) cold boot




29. Creation of a semaphore set is done using the _______system call.
A) semget()
B) semsget()
C) mknod()
D) sempget()
30. A shared memory segment first needs to be allocated (created), using
the__________ system call.
A) semget()
B) msgrcv()
C) shmget()
D) mknod()
31. The _________takes any characters from standard input, and then echoes them to
standard output.
A) kill character
B) cat command
C) cate command
D) control command
32. Pick the wrong statement from the following.
A) UNIX systems originally came with a command interpreter called the Bourne Shell.
B) The cat command takes any characters from standard input, and then echoes them to
standard output.
C) A pipe is a means of taking the output of one command and directing it as another command.




D) The manual entry is called a man page, even though it is often more than one page long.
33. Which one of the following statements is true?
A)
The cat command cares which file it receives as input or where the input goes.
B) Relative pathnames begin with something other than the slash character
C) UNIX shells never remember their current working directory (CWD).
D) The cat command interprets -X as an option character rather than a pathname.
34. When copying more than one file at a time, you must specify an existing directory as the
___________
A) Source
B) Sub directory
C) Destination.
D) Path name
35. The find command is different from most UNIX commands in that each of the
argument expressions following the beginning path name is considered a
_____________
A) action expression
B) Boolean expression.
C) Boolean constant
D) Search qualifiers
36. One of the wonderful things about UNIX is its ___________names.
A) Unlimited path
B) Unlimited directory




C) Limited path
D) Limited file
37. RPN stands for
A) Reverse Polish Notation
B) Record Police Notation
C) Record Polish Notation
D) Reverse Police Negation
38. The usual su command syntax is
A) su-pwd
B) su-pd
C) su - userID
D) Sue- ID
39. ___________variable is not automatically created on all UNIX systems but is used by so
many programs that it is considered a standard environment variable.
A) IFS
B) MAIL
C) TERM
D) PATH
40.Choose the correct statement from the following.
A) In computer terminology, variables are symbols which stand for some value.
B) An alternative method for executing the commands in the file backup is to make the file as
directory.




C) The restricted shell gives more control to the system administrator and restricts the options of
the user.
D) The decision making done by computer programs is in the form of conditional execution.
Part B (Two mark questions)
41. A program to be executed must be in ---------------
A) main memory
B) secondary memory
C) virtual memory
D) Read only memory
42. In layered approach each layer uses the functions and services of ------------------
A) kernel
B) lower-level layers
C) higher-level layers
D) all of these
43. ______________ are popular way to improve application through parallelism.
A) Processes
B) Threads
C) Context switching
D) none of these
44.__________ deals with when a modified page should be written out to secondary memory.
A) Cleaning policy
B) Fetch policy
C) Frame locking
D) None of these




45. A solution to starvation is _____________.
A) segmentation
B) Aging
C) Paging
D) virtual memory
46. _______________refers to a strategy where whenever a resource is requested, it is only
granted if it cannot result in deadlock.
A) Deadlock Prevention
B) Livelock
C) Deadlock avoidance
D) none of these
47. When a child dies, it sends a _______________signal to its parent.
A) SIGCHLD
B) EDEADLK
C) WNOHANG
D) SEDECHLD
48. ______________is a mechanism the prevents two or more processes from accessing a
shared resource simultaneously.
A) Livelock
B)Preemption
C) Semaphore
D) either a) or b)
49. A two-byte integer called ____________is interpreted as an index into an array of inodes in
a fixed, known location on disk.




A) an inode
B) an inumber
C) an imap
D) an imark
50. A SCSI device can transfer up to----------- of information per second.
A) 40 Mbytes
B) 60 Mbytes
C) 40 Gbytes
D) 60 Gbytes
51. The controller can access memory in memory cycles which are not used by the particular
bank of memory into which the DMA controller is writing data. This approach, called _________
A) interrupting
B) cycle stealing
C) swapping
D) paging
52. The two sub systems of user mode layer of windows 2000 are _________ and __________
A) excel, executive
B) environment, integral
C) orbit , kernel
D) Kernel , executive
53. A standard UNIX system includes a set of ___________ and a set of ___________.
A) Commands ,files
B) Libraries, Applications




C) Libraries, files
D) Files, Applications
54. Ext2 is the standard file system of _______ and uses a block size of_____bytes
A) MS DOS,8K
B) Linux ,1024
C)Linux, 512
D)Unix, 512
55. An orphan process is automatically inherited by the _____and becomes a
_______ of this process.
A) 'init' process, father
B) 'init' process, child
C) 'initial’ process, father
D) 'it' process, child
56. An option commonly takes the form of a _____followed by __________characters.
A) dot, one or more
B) dash, only one
C) dash, one or more
D) dot,only two
57. Which of the following statements are true?
i. Filenames can be as long as 255 characters in System V Release 4 UNIX.
ii. Like cp, mv can handle multiple files if the destination is a file.




iii. To change your umask, enter mask and a two digit number that specifies your new
umask.
iv. Named pipes enable you to communicate with a running program by reference to a file.
A) ii and iii
B) ii and iv
C) i and iv
D) i and iii
58.One reason why UNIX is so flexible is that each program is automatically assigned three
standard files. They are
A) The standard input file, the standard output file, and the standard error file.
B) The backup file, the standard output file, and the standard error file.
C) The standard input file, the standard output file, and the standard hidden file.
D) The standard input file, the standard search file, and the standard error file.
59. The id command reports four things. They are
A) The user ID number, login name, login password, and group name of the person who
invokes it.
B) The user password, login name, single ID number, and names of the persons who
invokes it.
C) The user password, login name, path number, and name of the person who
invokes it.
D) The user ID number, login name, group ID number, and group name of the person who




invokes it.
60. Which of the following statements are true?
i. Normally, a looping construct executes all the commands between the do statement and
the done statement.
ii. In most higher level programming languages, variables are typed, meaning that they are
not restricted to certain kinds of data, such as numbers or characters.
iii. A program can get data in two ways: either it is passed to the program when it is executed
as arguments, or the program gets data interactively.
iv. Using the echo command in your program, you can determine whether a file exists,
whether it can be written to, and several other conditions.
A) i and iv
B) iii and iv
C) i, ii and iii
D) i and iii
Part C (Four mark questions)
61. Match the following
1. Operating system i). application software
2. Library system ii) system software
3. secondary storage iii) smaller capacity
4. Main memory iv) larger capacity
A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
B) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-I, 4-iii




C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
D) 1-iv, 2-I, 3-ii, 4-iii
62. Match the following.
a) QNX i. Bell Labs
b) MPI ii. CPU
c) gCore iii. Software package
D) Plan9 Operating System iv . Based on the microkernel design
A) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
63. Which of these is a reason for using threads in designing operating systems?
A) Unlike processes, threads are not independent of one another
B) All threads can access every address in the task .
C) Because threads can share common data, they do not need to use interprocess
communication.
D) Like processes, thread can create children.
64. Arrange the following memories in terms of increasing access time (from low to high)
1. Registers
2. Main memory
3. Secondary memory
4. Cache




A) 1-3 -4 -2
B) 1-4-2-3
C) 3-2-4-1
D) 2-4-1-3
65. Match the following
1. pipes i) continuously change their state
2. livelock ii) WNOHANG
3. Killing Zombies iii) fixed size
4. argument iv) web server
A) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-I, 4- ii
B) 1-iii, 2-i , 3-iv, 4- ii
C) 1-ii , 2- I, 3-iv, 4-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-iv ,3-ii, 4- i
66. The introduction of mutual exclusion can prevent race conditions but can lead to problems
such as________________
A) deadlock
B) starvation
C) both a) and b)
D) none of these




67. Match the following
1. Programmed controlled I/O i. polled I/O
2. Interrupt controlled I/O ii. Cycle stealing
3. DMA iii. maskable and non maskable
A) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
D) 1-i , 2-ii , 3-iii
68. Match the following
1. Process manager i. Device detection and installation
2. IPC manager ii. Thread creation
3. PNP manager iii. Drawing windows and menus
4. Window manager iv . communication between clients.
A) 1- iv, 2-iii, 3- ii, 4- i
B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3- i, 4-iii
C) 1- iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4- i
D) 1- iv , 2-ii, 3-iii, 4- i
69. Match the following
a) kernel i) Switches between processes
b) Operating system ii) Initialization of I/O devices
c) Unix commands iii) Sells UnixWare
d) Novell iv) Case sensitive




A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
70. State whether True (T) or False (F)
a. System files should be kept separate from data files created by users, and hence a
separate file system is usually made for them.
b. SVR5 systems define various run levels in which a specific set of processes are allowed
to run.
c. Login name identifies the user and computer hardware names.
d. Passwords are normally represented by a special encrypted format and are stored in the
file.
A) a-F, b-F, c-T, d-T
B) a-F, b- T, c- F, d-T
C) a-T, b-T, c-F, d-T
D) a-T, b-T, c-F, d-F
71. Match the following
a) A named pipe i. FIFO
b) renice command ii. A resource that contains an integer value
c) child process iii. Change the priority of a process,
d) semaphore iv. zombie
A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-I
B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii




C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
72. Match the following
a) exit i. version of C shell
b) tcsh ii. Control character
c) eof iii. Normal way to logout
d) TERM iv. Environment variable
A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
73. State whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F)
a. When you copy a file into a directory, cp creates the new file with the different name.
b. The name cat derives from the word gatecate, which means to connect in a series or to
link together.
c. UNIX is a multiuser operating system, which means that you share the system with
other users.
d. There are no differences between hard and symbolic links.
A) a-T, b-T c-T, d-F
B) a-F, b-F, c-T d-T
C) a-T b-F, c-T ,d-F
D) a-F, b-F, c-T, d-F




74. State whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F)
a. The ls command can also accept a filename as a command line parameter.
b. When a file is created, the path can inadvertently acquire printable numbers.
c. The -size n expression is a good example of a search criterion that is evaluated
numerically.
d. A program that takes standard file and creates standard input is sometimes called a
filter.
A) a-T,b-T,c-F,d-F
B) a-F,b-F,c-T,d-T
C) a-T,b-F,c-F,d-T
D )a-T,b-F,c-T,d-F
75. Match the following
a) getty program i. Default value is $.
b) PS1 ii. The default value is >.
c) PS2 iii. Displays a login prompt
d) Shell variables iv. Always stored as characters
A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii ,d-iv
D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii




Answer Keys
Part - A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 A 21 B 41 A 61 A
2 D 22 A 42 B 62 D
3 B 23 D 43 B 63 C
4 A 24 C 44 A 64 B
5 A 25 C 45 B 65 B
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 C
7 B 27 C 47 A 67 A
8 D 28 D 48 C 68 B
9 B 29 A 49 B 69 B
10 C 30 C 50 A 70 D
11 A 31 B 51 B 71 D
12 B 32 C 52 B 72 C
13 A 33 B 53 B 73 D
14 B 34 C 54 B 74 D
15 B 35 B 55 B 75 C
16 A 36 A 56 C
17 A 37 A 57 C
18 B 38 C 58 A
19 C 39 C 59 D
20 A 40 C 60 D

SYSTEM ANALYSIS AND DESIGEN

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: MC0069
Subject Name: System Analysis and Design
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)
1. _____ process business transactions such as orders, time cards, payments, and
reservations.
A) Transaction Processing Systems
B) Management Information Systems
C) Decision Support Systems
D) Executive Information Systems
2. _____ use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the
business.
A) Transaction Processing Systems
B) Management Information Systems
C) Decision Support Systems
D) Executive Information Systems
3. _____ capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver.
A) Decision Support Systems




B) Management Information Systems
C) Expert systems
D) Executive Information Systems
4. _____ construct the system according to the system designer’s specification.
A) System builders
B) System users
C) System analysts
D) None of the above
5. A _____ is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes, operations,
relationships, and semantics.
A) Component
B) Interface
C) Node
D) Class
6. A/an _____ is a named property of a class that describes a range of values that instances of
the property may hold.
A) Operation
B) Attribute
C) Responsibility
D) Visibility
7. _____ is a collection of operations that are used to specify a service.
A) Class




B) Interface
C) Node
D) Component
8. _____ is the specification of an asynchronous stimulus communicated between instances.
A) Signal
B) Interface
C) Node
D) Component
9. A/an _____ is a using relationship that states that a change in specification of one thing may
affect another thing that uses it.
A) Association
B) Generalization
C) Dependency
D) Role
10. A/an _____ is a relationship between a general thing (superclass) and a more specific kind
of that thing (subclass).
A) Dependency
B) Generalization
C) Role
D) Association
11. _____ is a connection among things.
A) Dependency




B) Role
C) Association
D) Relationship
12. _____ is a form of aggregation, with strong ownership and coincident lifetime as part of the
whole.
A) Composition
B) Generalization
C) Association
D) Role
13. A _____ is a graphical symbol for rendering constraints or comments attached to an
element or a collection of elements.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
14. A _____ is an extension of the vocabulary of the UML, allowing you to create new kinds of
building blocks similar to existing ones but specific to your problem.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
15. _____ is rendered as a name enclosed by guillemots and placed above the name of another
element.




A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
16. _____ is rendered as a string enclosed by brackets and placed below the name of another
element.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
17. A _____ is a collection of subsystems organized to accomplish a purpose and described by
a set of models, possibly from different viewpoints.
A) System
B) Subsystem
C) Model
D) View
18. A _____ is a grouping of elements, of which some constitute a specification of the behavior
offered by the other contained elements.
A) View
B) Subsystem
C) Model
D) System




19. _____ shows a set of components and their relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Deployment diagram
20. _____ shows a set of nodes and their relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Deployment diagram
21. A _____ is a diagram that shows a set of classes, interfaces, and collaborations and their
relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Deployment diagram
22. A/An _____ is a diagram that shows a set of objects and their relationships at a point in
time.
A) Deployment diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Class diagram




23. _____ shows a set of use cases and actors and their relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Use Case diagram
D) Deployment diagram
24. _____ is an interaction diagram that emphasizes the time ordering of messages.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Sequence diagram
25. _____ is a behavior that comprises a set of messages exchanged among a set of objects
within a context to accomplish a purpose.
A) Interaction
B) Message
C) Link
D) Sequencing
26. _____ is a specification of a communication between objects that conveys information with
the expectation that activity will ensue.
A) Link
B) Message
C) Sequencing
D) Interaction




27. _____ constraint specifies that the instance or link is created during execution of the
enclosing interaction.
A) New
B) Destroyed
C) Transient
D) Sequencing
28. _____ constraint specifies that the instance or link is created during execution of the
enclosing interaction but is destroyed before completion of execution.
A) New
B) Destroyed
C) Transient
D) Sequencing
29. _____ is the specification of a significant occurrence that has a location in time and space.
A) Event
B) Signal
C) Link
D) Sequencing
30. _____ is a kind of event that represents the specification of an asynchronous stimulus
communicated between instances.
A) Call event
B) Signal event
C) Time event




D) Change event
31. _____ is a relationship between two states indicating that an object in the first state will
perform certain actions and enter the second state when a specified event occurs and specified
conditions are satisfied.
A) Transition
B) Transformation
C) Linking
D) Sequencing
32. _____ shows a state machine, emphasizing the flow of control from state to state.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Statechart diagram
D) Sequence diagram
33. _____ is a physical and replaceable part of systems that conforms to and provides the
realization of a set of interfaces.
A) Object
B) Name
C) Class
D) Component
34. _____ distinguishes one component from other.
A) Class
B) Name




C) Attribute
D) Object
35. _____ is the component name prefixed by the name of the package in which that
component lives.
A) Class name
B) Object name
C) Path name
D) Node name
36. _____ is a collection of operations that are used to specify a service of a class or a
component.
A) Path
B) Events
C) Activities
D) Interface
37. _____ is a graphical language for visualizing, specifying, constructing, and documenting the
artifacts of a software intensive system.
A) UML
B) XML
C) HTML
D) SGML
38. _____ is an abstraction of a system treated in order to better understand the system.
A) Class




B) Model
C) Prototype
D) Object
39. A system is decomposed into _____.
A) Modules
B) Classes
C) Sub-systems
D) Components
40. _____ is a projection of a model, which is seen from one perspective or vantage point and
omits entities that are not relevant to this perspective.
A) System
B) Sub-system
C) Component
D) View
Part B (Two mark questions)
41. _____ help various decision makers identify and choose between options or decisions.
A) Transaction Processing Systems
B) Executive Information Systems
C) Decision Support Systems
D) Management Information Systems




42. _____ are tailored to the unique information needs of executives who plan for the business
and assess performance against those plans.
A) Decision Support Systems
B) Management Information Systems
C) Transaction Processing Systems
D) Executive Information Systems
43. A/an _____ is the implementation of a service that can be requested from any object of the
class to affect behavior.
A) Operation
B) Visibility
C) Attribute
D) Responsibility
44. A/an _____ is a contract or an obligation of a class.
A) Attribute
B) Visibility
C) Operation
D) Responsibility
45. A/an _____ is a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected
to objects of another.
A) Generalization
B) Role
C) Association




D) Dependency
46. A/an _____ is just the face the class at the near end of the association presents to the class
at the other end of the association.
A) Dependency
B) Role
C) Name
D) Generalization
47. A _____ is an extension of the properties of a UML element, allowing you to create new
information in that element’s specification.
A) Constraint
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Note
48. A _____ is an extension of the semantics of a UML element, allowing you to add new rules
or to modify existing ones.
A) Tagged Value
B) Note
C) Stereotype
D) Constraint
49. A _____ is a semantically closed abstraction of a system, meaning that it represents a
complete and self consistent simplification of reality, created in order to better understand the
system.
A) Diagram




B) View
C) Model
D) System
50. A _____ is a projection into the organization and structure of a system’s model, focused on
one aspect of that system.
A) View
B) Diagram
C) Model
D) Subsystem
51. The UML’s class diagrams are a superset of _____.
A) Object diagram
B) Deployment diagram
C) Entity relationship (E-R) diagrams
D) Component diagram
52. _____ is the process of transforming a model into code through a mapping to an
implementation language.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Front engineering
C) Back engineering
D) Forward engineering
53. _____ is a semantic connection among objects.
A) Sequencing




B) Link
C) Interaction
D) Message
54. A stream of messages forms a _____.
A) Sequence
B) Link
C) Collaboration
D) Interaction
55. _____ event represents the dispatch of an operation.
A) Signal event
B) Time event
C) Call event
D) Change event
56. _____ event represents the passage of time.
A) Change event
B) Signal event
C) Call event
D) Time event
57. _____ interface is realized by a component and _____ interface is used by a component.
A) Export, Import
B) Import, Export




C) Input, Output
D) Output, Input
58. State True or False.
1. A component is physical
2. A component is replaceable
A) 1-True, 2-True
B) 1-True, 2-False
C) 1-False, 2-True
D) 1-False, 2-False
59. A subsystem is both a kind of _____ and _____.
A) Package, Component
B) Package, Classifier
C) Component, Classifier
D) None of the above
60. State True or False.
1. A system is decomposed into a collection of subsystems
2. A subsystems is a grouping of elements
A) 1-False, 2-True
B) 1-True, 2-False
C) 1-True, 2-True
D) 1-False, 2-False




Part C (Four mark questions)
61. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Customers a. decision makers
2. Clerical staff b. perform highly skilled and specialized work
3. Technical staff c. perform day-to-day transaction processing
4. Executive managers d. users of information systems
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
62. _____ are technology specialists for information systems.
A) System users
B) System designers
C) Customers
D) Suppliers
63. A/an _____ is a mechanism that describes structural and behavioral features.
A) Object
B) Class
C) Classifier
D) Component




64. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Subsystem a. specification of an asynchronous stimulus
communication between instances
2. Use case b. physical element that exists at run time
3. Node c. set of sequence of actions
4. Signal d. grouping of elements
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
65. The idea that one can be built from other objects is called _____.
A) Aggregation
B) Association
C) Multiplicity
D) Dependency
66. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Realization a. solid line connecting the same or different
classes
2. Dependency b. solid directed line with a large open arrowhead,
pointing to the parent
3. Generalization c. dashed directed line, directed to the thing being
depended on




4. Association d. dashed directed line with a large open arrowhead
pointing to the classifier that specifies the contract
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
67. _____ specifies a comment, description, or explanation of the element to which it is
attached.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Documentation
D) Constraint
68. A _____ is the graphical presentation of a set of elements, most often rendered as a
connected graph of vertices (things) and arcs (relationships).
A) View
B) System
C) Model
D) Diagram
69. _____ is the process of transforming code into a model through a mapping from a specific
implementation language.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Back engineering




D) Front engineering
70. _____ diagram permits you to model the lifeline of an object.
A) Sequence
B) Collaboration
C) Class
D) Object
71. A _____ is a behavior that specifies the sequences of states an object goes through during
its lifetime in response to events.
A) Time machine
B) State machine
C) Class diagram
D) Object diagram
72. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Executable a. specifies source code or data
2. Library b. specifies a database table
3. Table c. specifies a static or dynamic object store
4. File d. specifies a component that may be run on a node
A) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b




73. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Collaboration a. specifies exchange of messages among objects
2. Component diagram b. shows the configuration of run time processing
nodes
3. Deployment diagram c. shows a set of components and their
relationships
4. Interaction diagram d. a society of classes, interfaces and other
elements that work together to provide some
cooperative behavior
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
74. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Use case view a. encompasses the components that are used to
assemble and release the physical system
2. Design view b. specifies the system’s concurrency and
synchronization mechanisms
3. Process view c. describes the vocabulary of the problem and its
solution
4. Implementation view d. describes the behavior of the system
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a




B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
75. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. System a. projection of a model
2. Subsystem b. an abstraction of a system
3. Model c. grouping of elements
4. View d. decomposed into a collection of subsystems
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b




Answer Keys
Part - A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 A 21 A 41 C 61 A
2 B 22 B 42 D 62 B
3 C 23 C 43 A 63 C
4 A 24 D 44 D 64 A
5 D 25 A 45 C 65 A
6 B 26 B 46 B 66 B
7 B 27 A 47 C 67 C
8 A 28 C 48 D 68 D
9 C 29 A 49 C 69 A
10 B 30 B 50 A 70 A
11 D 31 A 51 C 71 B
12 A 32 C 52 D 72 C
13 A 33 D 53 B 73 B
14 B 34 B 54 A 74 A
15 B 35 C 55 C 75 B
16 C 36 D 56 D
17 A 37 A 57 A
18 B 38 B 58 A
19 C 39 C 59 B
20 D 40 D 60 C

SYSTEM ANALYSIS AND DESIGEN

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: MC0069
Subject Name: System Analysis and Design
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)
1. _____ process business transactions such as orders, time cards, payments, and
reservations.
A) Transaction Processing Systems
B) Management Information Systems
C) Decision Support Systems
D) Executive Information Systems
2. _____ use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the
business.
A) Transaction Processing Systems
B) Management Information Systems
C) Decision Support Systems
D) Executive Information Systems
3. _____ capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver.
A) Decision Support Systems




B) Management Information Systems
C) Expert systems
D) Executive Information Systems
4. _____ construct the system according to the system designer’s specification.
A) System builders
B) System users
C) System analysts
D) None of the above
5. A _____ is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes, operations,
relationships, and semantics.
A) Component
B) Interface
C) Node
D) Class
6. A/an _____ is a named property of a class that describes a range of values that instances of
the property may hold.
A) Operation
B) Attribute
C) Responsibility
D) Visibility
7. _____ is a collection of operations that are used to specify a service.
A) Class




B) Interface
C) Node
D) Component
8. _____ is the specification of an asynchronous stimulus communicated between instances.
A) Signal
B) Interface
C) Node
D) Component
9. A/an _____ is a using relationship that states that a change in specification of one thing may
affect another thing that uses it.
A) Association
B) Generalization
C) Dependency
D) Role
10. A/an _____ is a relationship between a general thing (superclass) and a more specific kind
of that thing (subclass).
A) Dependency
B) Generalization
C) Role
D) Association
11. _____ is a connection among things.
A) Dependency




B) Role
C) Association
D) Relationship
12. _____ is a form of aggregation, with strong ownership and coincident lifetime as part of the
whole.
A) Composition
B) Generalization
C) Association
D) Role
13. A _____ is a graphical symbol for rendering constraints or comments attached to an
element or a collection of elements.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
14. A _____ is an extension of the vocabulary of the UML, allowing you to create new kinds of
building blocks similar to existing ones but specific to your problem.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
15. _____ is rendered as a name enclosed by guillemots and placed above the name of another
element.




A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
16. _____ is rendered as a string enclosed by brackets and placed below the name of another
element.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Constraint
17. A _____ is a collection of subsystems organized to accomplish a purpose and described by
a set of models, possibly from different viewpoints.
A) System
B) Subsystem
C) Model
D) View
18. A _____ is a grouping of elements, of which some constitute a specification of the behavior
offered by the other contained elements.
A) View
B) Subsystem
C) Model
D) System




19. _____ shows a set of components and their relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Deployment diagram
20. _____ shows a set of nodes and their relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Deployment diagram
21. A _____ is a diagram that shows a set of classes, interfaces, and collaborations and their
relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Deployment diagram
22. A/An _____ is a diagram that shows a set of objects and their relationships at a point in
time.
A) Deployment diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Class diagram




23. _____ shows a set of use cases and actors and their relationships.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Use Case diagram
D) Deployment diagram
24. _____ is an interaction diagram that emphasizes the time ordering of messages.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Component diagram
D) Sequence diagram
25. _____ is a behavior that comprises a set of messages exchanged among a set of objects
within a context to accomplish a purpose.
A) Interaction
B) Message
C) Link
D) Sequencing
26. _____ is a specification of a communication between objects that conveys information with
the expectation that activity will ensue.
A) Link
B) Message
C) Sequencing
D) Interaction




27. _____ constraint specifies that the instance or link is created during execution of the
enclosing interaction.
A) New
B) Destroyed
C) Transient
D) Sequencing
28. _____ constraint specifies that the instance or link is created during execution of the
enclosing interaction but is destroyed before completion of execution.
A) New
B) Destroyed
C) Transient
D) Sequencing
29. _____ is the specification of a significant occurrence that has a location in time and space.
A) Event
B) Signal
C) Link
D) Sequencing
30. _____ is a kind of event that represents the specification of an asynchronous stimulus
communicated between instances.
A) Call event
B) Signal event
C) Time event




D) Change event
31. _____ is a relationship between two states indicating that an object in the first state will
perform certain actions and enter the second state when a specified event occurs and specified
conditions are satisfied.
A) Transition
B) Transformation
C) Linking
D) Sequencing
32. _____ shows a state machine, emphasizing the flow of control from state to state.
A) Class diagram
B) Object diagram
C) Statechart diagram
D) Sequence diagram
33. _____ is a physical and replaceable part of systems that conforms to and provides the
realization of a set of interfaces.
A) Object
B) Name
C) Class
D) Component
34. _____ distinguishes one component from other.
A) Class
B) Name




C) Attribute
D) Object
35. _____ is the component name prefixed by the name of the package in which that
component lives.
A) Class name
B) Object name
C) Path name
D) Node name
36. _____ is a collection of operations that are used to specify a service of a class or a
component.
A) Path
B) Events
C) Activities
D) Interface
37. _____ is a graphical language for visualizing, specifying, constructing, and documenting the
artifacts of a software intensive system.
A) UML
B) XML
C) HTML
D) SGML
38. _____ is an abstraction of a system treated in order to better understand the system.
A) Class




B) Model
C) Prototype
D) Object
39. A system is decomposed into _____.
A) Modules
B) Classes
C) Sub-systems
D) Components
40. _____ is a projection of a model, which is seen from one perspective or vantage point and
omits entities that are not relevant to this perspective.
A) System
B) Sub-system
C) Component
D) View
Part B (Two mark questions)
41. _____ help various decision makers identify and choose between options or decisions.
A) Transaction Processing Systems
B) Executive Information Systems
C) Decision Support Systems
D) Management Information Systems




42. _____ are tailored to the unique information needs of executives who plan for the business
and assess performance against those plans.
A) Decision Support Systems
B) Management Information Systems
C) Transaction Processing Systems
D) Executive Information Systems
43. A/an _____ is the implementation of a service that can be requested from any object of the
class to affect behavior.
A) Operation
B) Visibility
C) Attribute
D) Responsibility
44. A/an _____ is a contract or an obligation of a class.
A) Attribute
B) Visibility
C) Operation
D) Responsibility
45. A/an _____ is a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected
to objects of another.
A) Generalization
B) Role
C) Association




D) Dependency
46. A/an _____ is just the face the class at the near end of the association presents to the class
at the other end of the association.
A) Dependency
B) Role
C) Name
D) Generalization
47. A _____ is an extension of the properties of a UML element, allowing you to create new
information in that element’s specification.
A) Constraint
B) Stereotype
C) Tagged Value
D) Note
48. A _____ is an extension of the semantics of a UML element, allowing you to add new rules
or to modify existing ones.
A) Tagged Value
B) Note
C) Stereotype
D) Constraint
49. A _____ is a semantically closed abstraction of a system, meaning that it represents a
complete and self consistent simplification of reality, created in order to better understand the
system.
A) Diagram




B) View
C) Model
D) System
50. A _____ is a projection into the organization and structure of a system’s model, focused on
one aspect of that system.
A) View
B) Diagram
C) Model
D) Subsystem
51. The UML’s class diagrams are a superset of _____.
A) Object diagram
B) Deployment diagram
C) Entity relationship (E-R) diagrams
D) Component diagram
52. _____ is the process of transforming a model into code through a mapping to an
implementation language.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Front engineering
C) Back engineering
D) Forward engineering
53. _____ is a semantic connection among objects.
A) Sequencing




B) Link
C) Interaction
D) Message
54. A stream of messages forms a _____.
A) Sequence
B) Link
C) Collaboration
D) Interaction
55. _____ event represents the dispatch of an operation.
A) Signal event
B) Time event
C) Call event
D) Change event
56. _____ event represents the passage of time.
A) Change event
B) Signal event
C) Call event
D) Time event
57. _____ interface is realized by a component and _____ interface is used by a component.
A) Export, Import
B) Import, Export




C) Input, Output
D) Output, Input
58. State True or False.
1. A component is physical
2. A component is replaceable
A) 1-True, 2-True
B) 1-True, 2-False
C) 1-False, 2-True
D) 1-False, 2-False
59. A subsystem is both a kind of _____ and _____.
A) Package, Component
B) Package, Classifier
C) Component, Classifier
D) None of the above
60. State True or False.
1. A system is decomposed into a collection of subsystems
2. A subsystems is a grouping of elements
A) 1-False, 2-True
B) 1-True, 2-False
C) 1-True, 2-True
D) 1-False, 2-False




Part C (Four mark questions)
61. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Customers a. decision makers
2. Clerical staff b. perform highly skilled and specialized work
3. Technical staff c. perform day-to-day transaction processing
4. Executive managers d. users of information systems
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
62. _____ are technology specialists for information systems.
A) System users
B) System designers
C) Customers
D) Suppliers
63. A/an _____ is a mechanism that describes structural and behavioral features.
A) Object
B) Class
C) Classifier
D) Component




64. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Subsystem a. specification of an asynchronous stimulus
communication between instances
2. Use case b. physical element that exists at run time
3. Node c. set of sequence of actions
4. Signal d. grouping of elements
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
65. The idea that one can be built from other objects is called _____.
A) Aggregation
B) Association
C) Multiplicity
D) Dependency
66. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Realization a. solid line connecting the same or different
classes
2. Dependency b. solid directed line with a large open arrowhead,
pointing to the parent
3. Generalization c. dashed directed line, directed to the thing being
depended on




4. Association d. dashed directed line with a large open arrowhead
pointing to the classifier that specifies the contract
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
67. _____ specifies a comment, description, or explanation of the element to which it is
attached.
A) Note
B) Stereotype
C) Documentation
D) Constraint
68. A _____ is the graphical presentation of a set of elements, most often rendered as a
connected graph of vertices (things) and arcs (relationships).
A) View
B) System
C) Model
D) Diagram
69. _____ is the process of transforming code into a model through a mapping from a specific
implementation language.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Back engineering




D) Front engineering
70. _____ diagram permits you to model the lifeline of an object.
A) Sequence
B) Collaboration
C) Class
D) Object
71. A _____ is a behavior that specifies the sequences of states an object goes through during
its lifetime in response to events.
A) Time machine
B) State machine
C) Class diagram
D) Object diagram
72. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Executable a. specifies source code or data
2. Library b. specifies a database table
3. Table c. specifies a static or dynamic object store
4. File d. specifies a component that may be run on a node
A) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b




73. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Collaboration a. specifies exchange of messages among objects
2. Component diagram b. shows the configuration of run time processing
nodes
3. Deployment diagram c. shows a set of components and their
relationships
4. Interaction diagram d. a society of classes, interfaces and other
elements that work together to provide some
cooperative behavior
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
74. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. Use case view a. encompasses the components that are used to
assemble and release the physical system
2. Design view b. specifies the system’s concurrency and
synchronization mechanisms
3. Process view c. describes the vocabulary of the problem and its
solution
4. Implementation view d. describes the behavior of the system
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a




B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
75. Match the following:
Set A Set B
1. System a. projection of a model
2. Subsystem b. an abstraction of a system
3. Model c. grouping of elements
4. View d. decomposed into a collection of subsystems
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b




Answer Keys
Part - A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 A 21 A 41 C 61 A
2 B 22 B 42 D 62 B
3 C 23 C 43 A 63 C
4 A 24 D 44 D 64 A
5 D 25 A 45 C 65 A
6 B 26 B 46 B 66 B
7 B 27 A 47 C 67 C
8 A 28 C 48 D 68 D
9 C 29 A 49 C 69 A
10 B 30 B 50 A 70 A
11 D 31 A 51 C 71 B
12 A 32 C 52 D 72 C
13 A 33 D 53 B 73 B
14 B 34 B 54 A 74 A
15 B 35 C 55 C 75 B
16 C 36 D 56 D
17 A 37 A 57 A
18 B 38 B 58 A
19 C 39 C 59 B
20 D 40 D 60 C

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